Interpreting the Sine Integral in Physics

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the interpretation of the sine integral and its relationship with the cosine integral in physics. It establishes that while the integrals of sin(kx) and cos(kx) from 0 to infinity are technically undefined, physicists often treat the cosine integral as converging to the delta function, δ(x). The conversation also explores the hand-wavy interpretation of the sine integral, leading to an unintuitive result of π/(2x) when using substitution techniques. This reflects the ongoing debate between mathematicians and physicists regarding the treatment of oscillatory functions.

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  • Basic concepts of oscillatory functions in mathematical physics
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stevendaryl
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Properly speaking, since sin(x) and cos(x) don't go to zero as x \rightarrow \infty, the following integrals are undefined:

\int_0^{\infty} cos(kx) dk
\int_0^{\infty} sin(kx) dk

However, in the handwavy way of physicists, we can often pretend that the cosine integral "converges" to \delta(x), where \delta(x) is defined via:

\int dx \delta(x) f(x) = f(0)

This interpretation is sort-of justified because for nicely-behaved functions f, we can prove:

\int_{0}^{+\infty} dk (\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} f(x) cos(kx) dx) = f(0)

If we blithely switch the order of integration, then we can write this as:

\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} dx f(x) (\int_{0}^{+\infty} cos(kx) dk) = f(0)

which sort of justifies identifies the inner integral with \delta(x).

My question is: Is there a related, equally hand-wavy interpretation of the sine integral?
 
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stevendaryl said:
However, in the handwavy way of physicists, we can often pretend that the cosine integral "converges" to δ(x)δ(x)\delta(x), where δ(x)δ(x)\delta(x) is defined via:

how you can say that? we know the function oscillates!
 
drvrm said:
how you can say that? we know the function oscillates!

That's why the word "converges" is in scare-quotes. The integral doesn't converge. However, for certain purposes, we can often act as if it converges to the delta function. (And for certain purposes, we can act as if the delta function is actually a function).
 
Last edited:
drvrm said:
how you can say that? we know the function oscillates!
That's typical answer of Mathematicians a century ago !
 
stevendaryl said:
My question is: Is there a related, equally hand-wavy interpretation of the sine integral?
By substituting ##\sin(kx)=\cos(kx-\pi/2)## into the integral of sine and then use the substitution technique to compute the integral as well as the hand-wavy definition of the cosine integral, I got an extremely unintuitive answer of ##\pi/(2x)##.
 
JJacquelin said:
That's typical answer of Mathematicians a century ago !
And still the answer in the ongoing war between mathematicians and physicists!
 
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