Introductory number theory challenge

Click For Summary

Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around a number theory challenge involving the expression \( a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n} \) for distinct primes \( p \) and \( q \), where \( n = pq \) and \( a \) is coprime to \( n \). Participants explore various proof techniques, including induction and modular arithmetic, while addressing the implications of their claims.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes an inductive proof using Euler's Theorem, suggesting that \( p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} \) is a key simplification.
  • Another participant challenges the validity of the implication from modular equivalence to congruence of exponents, citing a counterexample.
  • A later reply acknowledges the challenge and clarifies that the implication holds in one direction, which is sufficient for the proof.
  • One participant suggests that the condition \( \gcd(a, n) = 1 \) may not be necessary for the proof, referencing another participant's approach that divides the problem into cases mod \( p \) and mod \( q \).
  • Several participants express agreement on the correctness of the proof presented in one of the posts, while also noting the initial uncertainty regarding the necessity of the coprimality condition.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the validity of the proof methods discussed, particularly the modular approach. However, there remains some uncertainty regarding the necessity of the coprimality condition and the implications of modular equivalences.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the exponent space is not simply \( \mathbb{Z} \) but rather \( \mathbb{Z} / \varphi{(\varphi{(n)})} \mathbb{Z} \), indicating potential limitations in the scope of their claims.

Nono713
Gold Member
MHB
Messages
615
Reaction score
4
Let $n = pq$ such that $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes. Let $a$ be coprime to $n$. Show that the following holds:

$$a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n} ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ \text{for all} ~ ~ k \in \mathbb{Z}$$
 
Last edited:
Mathematics news on Phys.org
One possible proof is by induction. First, we use Euler's Theorem to simplify the statement:

$$a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n} ~ ~ ~ \Longleftrightarrow ~ ~ ~ p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

Now, we show that the base case $k = 1$ is true.

$$p + q \equiv n + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

And as $\varphi{(n)} = (p - 1)(q - 1)$, this is true (add $\varphi{(n)}$ to the left hand side).

Now, assume the statement holds for all exponents between $1$ and $k$ inclusive. Then we know that:

$$p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

$$p + q \equiv n + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

And so we obtain:

$$(p^k + q^k)(p + q) \equiv (n^k + 1)(n + 1) \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

$$p^{k + 1} + q^{k + 1} + q p^k + p q^k \equiv n^{k + 1} + 1 + n^k + n \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

So we see that if the statement is to hold true for $k + 1$, we just need to show that:

$$q p^k + p q^k \equiv n^k + n \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

Divide this through by $n$, which is valid as $\gcd{(n, \varphi{(n)})} = 1$, thus:

$$p^{k - 1} + q^{k - 1} \equiv n^{k - 1} + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

Which is the statement for $k - 1$, true by assumption! So it also holds for $k + 1$, and by induction holds for all $k > 0$.

Now consider the case $k < 0$. For this step, note that:

$$\left ( p^k + q^k \right ) \cdot n^{-1} \equiv \left ( n^k + 1 \right ) \cdot n^{-1} \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} ~ ~ ~ \Longleftrightarrow ~ ~ ~ q^{-k} p^0 + p^{-k} q^0 \equiv n^0 + n^{-k} \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

$$\therefore ~ ~ p^{-k} + q^{-k} \equiv n^{-k} + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

Showing that if the statement holds for $k$, then it also holds for $-k$. Finally, show the trivial case $k = 0$.

$$\blacksquare$$

Interestingly, this has a connection to the pairs $(x, y)$ which satisfy the following equivalence:

$$x^k + y^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} ~ ~ ~ \Longleftrightarrow ~ ~ ~ \left ( x + y \right )^k \equiv \left ( n + 1 \right )^k \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ \text{for all} ~ ~ k \in \mathbb{Z}$$

For which any solution $(x, y)$ must be some linear combination of $p$, $q$ and $n - 1$.

Note that the exponent space is not really $\mathbb{Z}$ but $\mathbb{Z} / \varphi{(\varphi{(n)})} \mathbb{Z}$.
 
Bacterius said:
Let $n = pq$ such that $p$ and $q$ are distinct primes. Let $a$ be coprime to $n$. Show that the following holds:

$$a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n} ~ ~ ~ ~ ~ \text{for all} ~ ~ k \in \mathbb{Z}$$
Since $a^p\equiv a \pmod{p}$, we have $a^{p^k}\equiv a \pmod{p}$.
Now, $a^{p^k+q^k}\equiv a^{p^k}a^{q^k}\equiv a^{q^k+1}\pmod{p}$
And, $a^{n^k+1}=a^{p^kq^k+1}\equiv(a^{p^k})^{q^k}a \equiv a^{q^k+1}\pmod{p}$

Thus, $a^{p^k+q^k}\equiv a^{n^k+1}\pmod{p}$.
Similarly, $a^{p^k+q^k}\equiv a^{n^k+1}\pmod{q}$.
From the above two we have, $a^{p^k+q^k}\equiv a^{n^k+1}\pmod{pq}$.

Hence $a^{p^k+q^k}\equiv a^{n^k+1}\pmod{n}$.
 
Bacterius said:
One possible proof is by induction. First, we use Euler's Theorem to simplify the statement:

$$a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n} ~ ~ ~ \Longleftrightarrow ~ ~ ~ p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}}$$

Hello Bacterius.

I don't see how the above is true.
Are you using that $a^i\equiv a^j \pmod{n}\Rightarrow i\equiv j\pmod{n}$.

If yes then I think the solution is incorrect as $4^3\equiv 4\pmod{15}$ but $3\not\equiv 1\pmod{\varphi(15)}$.

If no then please explain it in little more detail.
 
You are correct, I went a bit too fast here. The arrow only goes in one direction:

$$p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} ~ ~ ~ \implies ~ ~ ~ a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n}$$

This implication should remain strong enough for the proof. Sorry about that.
 
Bacterius said:
You are correct, I went a bit too fast here. The arrow only goes in one direction:

$$p^k + q^k \equiv n^k + 1 \pmod{\varphi{(n)}} ~ ~ ~ \implies ~ ~ ~ a^{p^k + q^k} \equiv a^{n^k + 1} \pmod{n}$$

This implication should remain strong enough for the proof. Sorry about that.
Okay then. Also my proof in post#3 suggests that we don't even need $gcd(a,n)=1$. Isn't it?
 
What the hell. I am tired today, I didn't even see your third post. Yes, that condition is not required either, I added it just to make sure because I wasn't yet sure myself when I posted the problem. Your proof is correct and a nice approach of dividing the problem mod p and mod q. (Yes)
 
Bacterius said:
What the hell. I am tired today, I didn't even see your third post. Yes, that condition is not required either, I added it just to make sure because I wasn't yet sure myself when I posted the problem. Your proof is correct and a nice approach of dividing the problem mod p and mod q. (Yes)
Thanks. :)
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 96 ·
4
Replies
96
Views
12K