Inverse of Operator: Is it True?

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The discussion clarifies that the statement "(1/ηαβ∂α∂β) = ηαβ∂α∂β" is false. The inverse of the D'Alembertian operator is not equal to itself and is classified as a distribution rather than a differential operator. This distinction is crucial for understanding the mathematical properties of the D'Alembertian in theoretical physics and differential equations.

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Halphy
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is this true?

(1/ηαβ∂α∂β)= ηαβ∂α∂β
any help,pls!
 
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Of course not. The inverse of the D'Alembertian is not equal to itself, it's not even a differential operator, but rather a distribution.
 

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