Halphy Messages 1 Reaction score 0 Thread starter Apr 23, 2013 #1 is this true? (1/ηαβ∂α∂β)= ηαβ∂α∂β any help,pls!
dextercioby Science Advisor Insights Author Messages 13,419 Reaction score 4,227 Apr 23, 2013 #2 Of course not. The inverse of the D'Alembertian is not equal to itself, it's not even a differential operator, but rather a distribution.
Of course not. The inverse of the D'Alembertian is not equal to itself, it's not even a differential operator, but rather a distribution.