Invertible <=> F is 1-1 and onto

[jeff1evesque]

invertible <==> F is "1-1" and "onto"

Never mind, haha- found out

Does anyone know why the following is true:

F is invertible <==> F is "1-1" and "onto"?

 

[ThirstyDog]

Yes it is true.

Say F maps from A to B then:

1) As F is onto every element in B corresponds to at least one element in A i.e. for all b \in B there is at least one a \in A such that f(a) = b.

2) As F is 1-1 every element in B can correspond to at most one element in A ie. f(a) = f(a&#039;) \Rightarrow a=a&#039;.

This is enough to be able to construct the inverse
f^{-1}(b) = a \mbox{ if and only if }f(a) = b