High School Proving Euclid's Lemma: The Role of Primality in Divisibility

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Euclid's Lemma states that if a prime number p divides the product of two integers a and b, then p must divide at least one of those integers. The discussion highlights a common misconception that this lemma applies to all integers, including composite numbers. Counterexamples using non-prime integers, such as p = 6 with a = 2 and b = 3, demonstrate that the lemma holds true exclusively for prime numbers. The proof relies on the properties of prime factorization, confirming that the lemma is valid only when p is prime.

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Suyogya
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"If a prime p divides the product ab of two integers a and b,then p must divide at least one of those integers a and b."(its euclid lemma true for primes only) when i tried to prove it as:
let for any integer p divides ab (ab)=(pn) ;for some integer n (a*b)/p=n
since RHS is integer, therefore for LHS to be integer either (a/p) or (b/p) or both must be integer, which means either p divides a or b or both.(hence proved)
But there is no restriction on p to be prime yet? is there any mistake in it?
 
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Try some sample numbers with p being prime and nonprime to see how it plays out. Here's one to try with a nonprime.
If a is 4 and b is 15, and p is 6, see how that works and go from there.
 
Suyogya said:
"If a prime p divides the product ab of two integers a and b,then p must divide at least one of those integers a and b."(its euclid lemma true for primes only) when i tried to prove it as:
let for any integer p divides ab (ab)=(pn) ;for some integer n (a*b)/p=n
since RHS is integer, therefore for LHS to be integer either (a/p) or (b/p) or both must be integer, which means either p divides a or b or both.(hence proved)
But there is no restriction on p to be prime yet? is there any mistake in it?

If ##a=2, b=3, p=6##, then you have a counterexample when ##p## is not prime.

In other words, in your "proof" you have said that as ##6## divides ##2 \times 3##, then either ##6## divides ##2## or ##6## divides ##3##.

It is necessary, therefore, that ##p## is prime.
 
Last edited:
Rereading it looks like they telling you that p is prime. Your job is not to prove p is prime, but to prove it is a divisor of a or b. Try representing a and b as product of prime factors.
 
scottdave said:
Rereading it looks like they telling you that p is prime. Your job is not to prove p is prime, but to prove it is a divisor of a or b. Try representing a and b as product of prime factors.
I proved it by assuming p an integer, hence should be valid for composites as well as primes, but its only for primes actually. so where its wrong
 
Suyogya said:
I proved it by assuming p an integer, hence should be valid for composites as well as primes, but its only for primes actually. so where its wrong
See post #3.
 
You have 2 examples of nonprimes, showing it doesn't necessarily work for nonprimes. I gave one in Post #2, and @PeroK gave one in Post #3.
 

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