Is a Real 3x3 Matrix with a Square of Identity Diagonalizable?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the diagonalizability of a real 3x3 matrix \( A \) whose square is the identity matrix. Participants explore the implications of this property on the eigenvalues and the potential for diagonalization using a real matrix.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to reason that since any matrix is diagonalizable over the complex numbers, the eigenvalues of \( A \) must be real and of modulus 1. Some participants question the validity of this assumption and suggest exploring the kernel and range of related matrices.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, with some providing insights into the rank-nullity theorem and its implications for the dimensions of eigenspaces. There is a recognition that the eigenvectors can be real, which supports the diagonalizability of \( A \) with a real matrix, though some uncertainty remains about the specifics of the diagonalization process.

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the potential complexity of the matrix \( P \) used for diagonalization and the implications of the eigenvalues being \( \pm 1 \). The exploration of the kernel and range of \( A+I \) and \( A-I \) is noted as a significant aspect of the reasoning process.

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[SOLVED] Diagonalizing a 3x3 matrix

Homework Statement



I want to show that a real 3x3 matrix, A, whose square is the identity is diagonalizable by a real matrix P and that A has (real) eigenvalues of modulus 1.

Homework Equations



None.

The Attempt at a Solution



Since any matrix is diagonalizable over the complex numbers, I deduced that since there exists a complex matrix P such that PAP^{-1} = diag{x,y,z} (so x,y,z the eigenvalues of A), then diag{x^2,y^2,z^2} = (PAP^{-1})^2 = Id, hence the eigenvalues are square roots of 1 therefore must be real of modulus 1 as required.

I'm not totally sure my reasoning is sound. Even if it is, there is still the problem that P may be complex.
 
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How do you figure that every matrix is diagonalizable over the complex numbers?? That's not true. Try diagonalizing [1 1,0 1]. On the other hand A^2=I can be factored into (A+I)(A-I)=0. Try thinking about the kernel and range of (A+I) and (A-I).
 
OK at last I think I see how to do this. I consider A+I and A-I as endomorphisms of a 3-dimensional vector space. Then use the rank-nullity theorem to deduce that

(i) dim(K+) + dim(R+) = 3

and

(ii) dim(K-) + dim(R-) = 3

(I hope the notation is obvious.)

Then I note that the kernels (resp. ranges) have intersection {0}, hence giving

(iii) dim(K+) + dim(K-) \le 3

and

(iv) dim(R+) + dim(R-) \le 3

Then (i) - (iii) combined with (iv) - (ii) gives say dim(R+) = dim(K-) whence we deduce that

dim(K+) + dim(K-) = 3

Finally note that these are the dimensions of the eigenspaces for 1 and -1 and so A is diagonalizable and once we know that the condition on the eigenvalues follows.

I'm not 100% sure that the matrix that we would use to actually DO the diagonalizing is real though.
 
That's basically it. Once you know K has three independent eigenvectors with eigenvalues +/-1 you are done. You know P can be taken to be real because your eigenvectors are real. It's just the change of basis from the standard basis to your eigenvectors.
 
Thank you so much!
 

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