RUTA said:
I'm probably misunderstanding you, but you can correct me if that's the case. When you say "the existence of a deep reality" I picture "microscopic" or "hidden" entities at work among, and distinct from, the elements of the experimental equipment.
Yes, that's what I'm picturing. But only for the purpose of the conjecture I was making regarding how the OP's question might be answered. I'm not saying that that is a candidate for a true picture of reality. I'm not saying that that's the best metaphysical picture of reality that can be conjured. I'm not saying that picturing things that way is the best way to approach formulating a viable interpretation of qm (your RBW way is obviously better in that respect). And, I myself don't actually picture reality in such a 'separable' way. (How I 'picture' it is much too abstract and, well, fuzzy to be of any use theoretically. It's a picture of an unresolvable chaotic cacaphony of simple and complex waveforms in a hierarchy of 3 dimensionally interspersed particulate media all, ultimately, governed by a single fundamental wave dynamic and built, ultimately, from wavelike disturbances in a fundamental structureless, ie. nonparticulate, medium. In this, overall, view the moon really isn't there. We aren't really there. There are no 'physical objects' per se. We are we and the moon is the moon and ponderable objects are ponderable objects because of the resonant properties that characterize us and the moon and any complex bounded, and more or less persistent, wave structures that constitute our continually moving, and evolving, universe. This is a wholistic and nonseparable view of reality, though I'm not sure it accords with your specific RBW view because it's also, necessarily, a dynamical view -- ie. the universal configuration is in a constant state of flux, the universal configuration that characterized 'yesterday' no longer exists, ie. it really no longer exists.)
Anyway wrt the OP's question, we assume that emitters are emitting submicroscopic or hidden wavelike disturbances in some unknown medium, some medium of unknown structure. The emissions might even be particles in the sense of bounded, and at least somewhat persistent, complex waveforms. Like, say, the light (photons) that is being emitted, analyzed and detected in optical Bell tests (or any quantum optical tests for that matter -- but optical Bell tests are particularly relevant wrt to considerations of the OP's question, even if Bell's theorem might not be). For our purposes here, I'm calling some picture, any picture, of 'something' propagating from emitter to filter to detector the 'deep reality' that exists whether we probe it with filters and detectors or not.
I stated that the existence or nonexistence of a deep reality can't be proven. It can only be inferred (or not, as one might choose) from instrumental behavior. I also stated that the assumption of the existence of a deep reality seems to me to be an essential part of fundamental physics. That is, quantum physics seems to be grounded on the assumption, based on inferences from observations of instrumental behavior, that such a deep reality exists. So I asked if the various possible answers to the OP's question are equally tenable, and answered that I don't think they are because of inferences by mainstream physicists regarding the existence, and certain characteristics, of a deep reality based on quantum experimental phenomena which have become an integral part of the development of qm and the standard model.
In other words, regardless of Zeilinger's, or whoever's, momentary expression of things, it seems to me that the mainstream development of fundamental physics is based on the assumption that there is something real with real and persistent properties that's produced via emission processes and that is moving from emitter to filter, then interacting with the filter, then moving from the filter to the detector and interacting with the detector.
And the contention is that if this assumption accords with reality (and of course we have no way of knowing, definitively, if this accords with reality), then EPR-type action at a distance has to be ruled out, because EPR-type action at a distance says that the deep reality of particle B is dependent on the macroscopically recorded reality of particle A, and vice versa.
In any case, EPR-type action at a distance is, prima facie, paradoxical and nonsensical -- so, EPR rightly dismissed it, even if not for precisely that reason, as not worthy of consideration.
So, I tentatively (pending you or someone else pointing out mistakes in how I'm thinking about this) conclude that EPR-type action at a distance isn't possible given the observations and inferences of modern physics, and some simple (maybe too simple?) logic.
By the way, can I look at certain parts (the parts that might be at odds with my own 'realistic' view of things) of your RBW construction as just necessary mathematical conveniences? I really am beginning to understand, and like, your approach and rationale, even if I still don't understand some parts of your construction.
Continuing with the main theme (is there a main theme?) of this thread, I stated:
ThomasT said:
We can assume that emitters don't emit anything, filters don't filter anything, and detectors don't detect anything -- ie., that there's no deep reality that's ultimately affecting and determining instrumental results. In which case, EPR-type action at a distance would be necessary, and the answer to the OP's question would be yes.
Wrt which, given my 'definition' of EPR-type action at a distance above, this statement of mine doesn't seem to make much sense now. I'm learning, refining, thinking a little and modifying my view as I go. It's quite possible that I'll adopt an entirely different way of looking at things in the next few pages (I sense that this thread is far from over.). I hope that you don't find that too annoying.
In any case, given the first part (the assumption, not the conclusion) of my last quote-shaded statement, then this would seem to entail some sort of action at a distance, even if not, strictly speaking, the EPR-type.
To which you replied:
RUTA said:
In RBW, there are no "microscopic" or "hidden" entities at work among, and distinct from, the elements of the experimental equipment, but there is no action at a distance either.
To which my initial response was "how can that be"?.
And then I read your next statement:
RUTA said:
That's because it's not a dynamical ontology, i.e., explanation isn't based on cause and effect, but on a nonseparable "4Dism."
And then I could only say, "oh, ok then" -- still (while liking it's rhetorical possibilities, and beginning to vaguely appreciate it's theoretical necessariness) not fully understanding how your "nonseparable 4Dism" can be nondynamical or adynamical while my pedestrian "nonseparable 3Dism" plus time/change = "nonseparable 4Dism" seems, to me to be, so necessarily dynamical. And then it hit me. While I'm simply musing about 'fundamental reality' based on some possibly quite 'loose' associations, you and your associate authors of RBW have actually constructed a viable physical theory/interpretation.
Until I fully understand and appreciate RBW, and maybe even after, can I think of RBW as being essentially an instrumentalist approach?
If so, and not to put you on the spot (as if I could), then what about the notion that standard qm (the bare formalism with the basic probabilistic interpretation) is already essentially an instrumentalist approach?
Ok, I do think that you've added some illuminating and constructive stuff. Your rationale and conceptual approach is somewhat compelling. So, have I answered that particular question adequately, or might you add something to aid my, and others, understanding?
And, if not, then nevermind, and any elaboration you might offer is appreciated.
Are we getting away from the OP theme? Does it matter?
ThomasT said:
Are you saying that the acceptance of your interpretation by the foundations communitiy is based on a generally held assumption that instrumental behavior is not determined by the existence and behavior of a reality deeper than the instrumental level?
RUTA said:
The acceptance is based simply on its logical possibility (as shown by relevant calculations).
Ok, so at some point your conceptual approach sort of segues into the probability calculus of standard qm? Even so, a consistent 'conceptual' approach and rationale would seem to be an advance. Would you say that RBW in some sense, in any sense, reconciles GR with QM?
Are you and your group planning or now working on any revisions?
RUTA said:
Do they subscribe to it? No, by and large they hate it.
I think you're just being modest. Didn't Bub like it? Or, did he just offer that eventually, after several epiphanies, he understood it -- not that he actually liked it?
ThomasT said:
The short answer is also "no", depending on what's inferred/assumed. Of course, the most sensible answer is "we don't know", which we might express as a "definite maybe" regarding the possible answers to the OP's question.
RUTA said:
Perhaps we have different interpretations of the OP question. I read it, "Is non-locality possible given EPR phenomena?"
Perhaps. I read it as the OP wrote it. "Is action at a distance possible as envisaged by the EPR paradox?" Which might be condensed to, "Is EPR-type action at a distance possible?". Which then requires that we define EPR-type action at a distance. And when we do that we find that it's different than other types of action at a distance. Specifically, it requires that the deep reality of a particle (or wave or whatever), b, assumed to be incident on a filter or detector, B, is dependent on an instrumental event, A, spacelike separated from the predicted instrumental events at B. And when we consider that the deep reality of, a, assumed to be incident on a filter or detector, A, is also dependent on an instrumental event, B, then we have a bit of a problem. Or do we? I don't really know. Help?
RUTA said:
Since it is generally agreed that EPR-Bell phenomena imply non-locality and/or nonseparability, the short answer is "yes, non-locality is a possibility."
But, what sort of nonlocality? Given the inability to describe the entanglement correlations in a detailed local realistic way, there are at least two different sorts of nonlocality that we can consider to, at least quantitatively, account for the observed results. If EPR-type nonlocality is ruled out, then the answer to the OP's question is no.
RUTA said:
I've sure had a lot of fun with this thread!
I'm glad you have that attitude. It's certainly appreciated that a physicist such as yourself is willing to take the time to answer questions from people like me who are not even remotely as knowledgeable as you, but are nonetheless fascinated by this stuff. Of course, that's part of what PF is all about. And also of course, I'll bet that you would really like it if some heavyweight bona fide working physicists would come down from their self-erected, but nonetheless justified, thrones for a time and make some comments about your interpretation/theory. Or are they already doing that in another, more technically oriented, thread (most of the comments within which I probably, at this time, would, generally, not understand)?