DevilsAvocado said:
Great explanation DrC. Now... I just wonder... how billschnieder is going to mess-up this beautiful and simple explanation...? Huh? Maybe some "chains" of probability? Maybe some hilarious (Monty) Python code? Or maybe a groundless personal attack??
I’m going for the later: billschnieder are now going to accuse you for not answering his question, ...
billschnieder said:
This is bait-and-switch. Those following the discussion know exactly what I am addressing which is different from your misrepresentation of my position.
Of course I’m laughing in triumph. I was right!
Only a totally deranged oddball, locked in the Cranky Cave of Grandmaster Crackpot Kracklauer, would repeatedly continue this head-banging lunacy, which we now are experiencing in this and other threads on PF. You have by far driven this brainless "tactic" over the edge of hilarious parody, and I can assure you – I’m not the only one laughing out loud.
billschnieder said:
Python is free (
http://www.python.org/download/), and it takes 1 minute to install and test my code. Anyone with more than one braincell will actually run the code BEFORE triumphantly proclaiming their idiocy with an outburst such as yours
Please Mr.
BS, don’t be mad. Once again you have misinterpreted everything about everything. The numeric example "0*0" was not referring to your silly little code, but your brain cells. The recommendation to not even spend even 1 minute on this intellectual fraud still remains solid, because you’re trying to "prove" something that solely exists inside your own crooked head, and not outside, in the real world of balanced and sincere scientists.
billschnieder said:
The question I am addressing is the clearly the following:
"Is action at a distance a possible conclusion from Bell's inequalities and the results of Bell-test experiments?"
And here we go again. Not even wrong. You’re all over the place with your skewed picture of mainstream science. Deliberately or not, you’re leaving out the most important part in Bell's theorem:
"No physical theory of local hidden variables can ever reproduce all of the predictions of quantum mechanics."
Consequently, your "personal theories" is
an attack on the predictions of quantum mechanics, more than anything else, and I do hope you truly realize what this means, and how utterly ridiculous 10 lines of iterative Python code are in the light of this fact. That’s why we are all laughing.
But, maybe this oddball "approach" is perfectly "natural" to you, having Crackpot Kracklauer as the one and only guiding "star".
billschnieder said:
My answer to the above question can be summarized in the following points which remain unchallenged:
1) Bell's inequalities can be derived from triples of dichotomous variables without any physical assumption
2) In Bell-test experiments only pairs of values are ever collected at a time (a dataset of pairs)
3) A dataset of pairs can be made to violate inequalities derived from a dataset of triples for purely mathematical reasons
4) I have provided mathematical proof of (1), (2) is an accepted fact. I have provided proof of (3) via simulation
5) Therefore, the violation of Bell's inequalities derived from triples, by experiments such as Bell-test experiments which only collect pairs, is not surprising, it is expected for purely mathematical reasons, having nothing to do with realism or locality.
6) Therefore, Bell's inequality can never be violated by a dataset of triples, even if the physical assumption of of spooky action at a distance is mandated!
Now if anyone thinks my answer is wrong, be specific, about which of the above claims is false, and why it is false.
Maybe someone thinks I’m too harsh, accusing you for being an intellectual fraud. But, here’s the proof:
billschnieder said:
1) Bell's ansatz (equation 2 in his paper) correctly represent those local-causal hidden variables
2). Bell's ansatz necessarily lead to Bell's inequalities
3). Experiments violate Bell's inequalities
Conclusion: Therefore the real physical situation of the experiments is not Locally causal.
There is no doubt in my mind that statement (2) has been proven mathematically since I do not know of any mathematical errors in Bells derivation. Similarly, there is very little doubt in my mind that experiments have effectively demonstrated that Bell's inequalities are violated. I say little doubt because no loophole-free experiments have yet been performed but for the sake of this discussion we can assume that loopholes do not matter.
No mathematical errors in Bells derivation. Well, well, well, what happened here??
What happened is that
JesseM proved, by immense patience and great skills, that your "chains of probability" where dead wrong. Then you changed your madcap "approach" to the "triplet mess". Once again JesseM where about to prove you wrong, and to get out of this, you started a totally groundless personal attack on JesseM:
JesseM said:
I did respond to that post, but I didn't end up responding to your later post #128 on the subject
here because before I got to it you said you didn't want to talk to me any more unless I agreed to make my posts as short as you wanted them to be and for me not to include discussions of things I thought were relevant if you didn't agree they were relevant.
JesseM said:
As you no doubt remember I gave extended arguments and detailed questions intended to show why your claims that Bell's theorem is theoretically flawed or untestable don't make sense, but you failed to respond to most of my questions and arguments and then abruptly shut down the discussion, in multiple cases (As with my posts
here and
here where I pointed out that your argument about the failure of the 'principle of common cause' ignored the specific types of conditions where it failed as outlined in the Stanford Encyclopedia article you were using as a reference, and I asked you to directly address my argument about past light cones in a local realist universe without relying on nonapplicable statements from the encyclopedia article. Your response
here was to ignore all the specific quotes I gave you about the nature of the required conditions and declare that you'd decided we'd have to 'agree to disagree' on the matter rather than discuss it further...if you ever change your mind and decide to actually address the light cone argument in a thoughtful way, you might start by saying whether you disagree with anything in post #63
here).
Then you continued the crazy "triplet mess", knowing that JesseM would prove your initial attack on Bell dead wrong:
billschnieder said:
The facts are the following:
1) Bell's inequality is derived assuming 3 values per dataset point
2) Bell-test experiments measure 2 values per dataset point
3) Bell-test experiments violate Bell's inequalities
JesseM showed patience:
JesseM said:
So this critique appears to be rather specific to the Leggett-Garg inequality, maybe you could come up with a variation for other inequalities but it isn't obvious to me ...
But you continued your wacky crankiness:
billschnieder said:
This is not a valid criticism for the following reason:
1) You do not deny that the LGI is a Bell-type inequality. Why do you think it is called that?
2) You have not convincingly argued why the LGI should not apply to the situation described in the example I presented
3) You do not deny the fact that in the example I presented, the inequalities can be violated simply based on how the data is indexed.
4) You do not deny the fact that in the example, there is no way to ensure the data is correctly indexed unless all relevant parameters are known by the experimenters
5) You do not deny that Bell's inequalities involve pairs from a set of triples (a,b,c) and yet experiments involve triples from a set of pairs.
6) You do not deny that it is impossible to measure triples in any EPR-type experiment, therefore Bell-type inequalities do not apply to those experiments. Boole had shown 100+ years ago that you can not substitute Rij for Sij in those type of inequalities.
JesseM tried to explain:
JesseM said:
billschnieder said:
5) You do not deny that Bell's inequalities involve pairs from a set of triples (a,b,c) and yet experiments involve triples from a set of pairs.
I certainly deny this too, in fact I don't know what you can be talking about here. Different inequalities involve different numbers of possible detector settings, but if you look at any particular experiment designed to test a particular inequality, you always find the same number of possible detector settings in the inequality as in the experiment. If you disagree, point me to a particular experiment where you think this wasn't true!
billschnieder said:
6) You do not deny that it is impossible to measure triples in any EPR-type experiment, therefore Bell-type inequalities do not apply to those experiments. Boole had shown 100+ years ago that you can not substitute Rij for Sij in those type of inequalities.
This one is so obviously silly you really should know better. The Bell-type inequalities are based on the
theoretical assumption that on each trial there is a λ which either predetermines a definition outcome for each of the three detector settings (like the 'hidden fruits' that are assumed to be behind each box on my scratch lotto analogy), or at least predetermines a probability for each of the three which is not influenced by what happens to the other particle at the other detector (i.e. P(A|aλ) is not different from P(A|Bbaλ)). If this theoretical assumption
were valid, and the probability of different values of λ on each trial did not depend on the detector settings a and b on that trial, then this would be a perfectly valid situation where these inequalities would be predicted to hold. Of course we don't know if these theoretical assumptions actually hold in the real world, but that's the point of testing whether the inequalities hold up in the real world--if they don't, and our experiments meet the necessary observable conditions that were assumed in the derivation, then this constitutes an experimental falsification of one of the predictions of our original theoretical assumptions.
But you are still continuing your ridiculous crusade against John Bell, without listening to professionals.
If we just take one step back, and look at your new main cranky "argument":
If your silly little code, by a grand miracle, proves that the http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Leggett%E2%80%93Garg_inequality" is wrong, then you are hoping to run Bell's theorem down the drain as well, right?
(To those who don’t know: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anthony_James_Leggett" got the Nobel Prize in Physics 2003)
There’s only one 'little' problem with this "advanced crackpot approach" – Bell's theorem was formulated in
1964 and the Leggett–Garg inequality is from
1985, published in the paper: http://prl.aps.org/abstract/PRL/v54/i9/p857_1"
Are you claiming that John Bell used a time machine in 1964 that made Bell's theorem unconditionally depending on something that were to happen in 1985??
Or are you claiming that George Boole was working on a "Leggett–Garg inequality" already in 1840, and this is the real reason for John Bell’s claimed failure in 1964??
I know you & Crackpot Kracklauer have some really crazy ideas, but this is (
hopefully) a little too absurd even to you...
I don’t know why you are doing the bizarre stuff you do, but too the casual reader – this is
not science.
To me, this looks like a severe case of http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dunning–Kruger_effect" .
I’m not going to spend more time on you, since there is undoubtedly NO hope.