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B Is classical mechanics philosophically sound?

  1. Apr 27, 2016 #1

    A. Neumaier

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    They are subjective even in the classical, nonrelativistic mechanics of a pendulum, since the notions appear when you try to relate the theory to a real pendulum. In classical, nonrelativistic mechanics, the interpretation of the words ''observation'', ''experiment'' and ''measurement'' needed to build a proper bridge between classical theory and reality are also subjective. (The respective definitions in the wikipedia pages linked to contain many unexplained words whose meaning is as subjective as those of the above two words, or even more.)

    So why do you regard classical, nonrelativistic few-particle mechanics as philosophically sound, but complain about foundational problems in quantum mechanics?
     
    Last edited: Apr 27, 2016
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 27, 2016 #2
    Subjectivity as you yourself say has some explanation in Classical mechanics which works with some axioms like point particle etc. But subjectivity in QM does not have any explanation may be classical explanation!
     
  4. Apr 27, 2016 #3

    stevendaryl

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    I don't have any problems with things being subjective. I was just objecting to your claim that using "expectations" instead of "probabilities" makes any difference, in principle.
     
  5. Apr 28, 2016 #4

    A. Neumaier

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    It makes no difference only in the sense that ultimately everything said on any subject boils down to using imprecise language.

    But if you take this to mean that it makes no difference in principle - then there is no difference, in principle, between ancient subjective divination and modern objective science, between quantum mechanics and crackpot alternatives, or between an interpretation of quantum mechanics and shut-up-and-calculate.

    You found a very elegant solution to all philosophical problems - you simply hide them under the universal rug of subjectivity. This solves everything, in principle. Congratulations!
     
    Last edited: Apr 28, 2016
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