pftest said:
Now you are getting to the important point: language itself and the act of labelling things. Physically, the pile is just a collection of basic physical ingredients (elementary particles, etc.). But our senses think it is an entirely new/different phenomenon so we give it a new label (this is useful to communicate with other people). However, the pile is reducible, meaning that it can in principle be described fully in terms of basic physical ingredients. So the new label "pile" is actually redundant. "pileness" is not a physical property, it is merely a higher level description. The important part here is that labeling things and mistaking them to be new phenomena is a conscious activity. Consciousness is required to do it in the first place. That is why one says that consciousness is like "pileness", one in fact says that consciousness is a higher level description, and higher level descriptions require consciousness in the first place
While it is true that we can label things (and be mistaken) only if we are conscious, I still stick to my previous statement. "Consciousness" is not a term quite so easily given a definition. While the Being of consciousness (if you will allow me to speak in such vague terms) is given in experience, the concepts we form of consciousness are not. Exactly how we define consciousness is of the nature of a hypothesis. So, for all factual things that we label, we can be mistaken about the nature of the description applied. "Consciousness" is a concept we have labelled within experience, and as such the concept is capable of being mistaken.
That much I am sure you will agree with. Where we differ, is in re-defining the concept "consciousness". You hold that consciousness can be defined properly only if it is defined as being an intrinsic aspect of the "atoms" of this world (taken in the sense of elementary phenomena) because the opposite involves a contradiction.
The contradiction lies on the law of the excluded middle, and you are saying that something cannot
by definition emerge from its opposite, for that would be a
logical contradiction. Now we have a number of important tangent questions. Among them are "Can we use logical conclusions to make ontological conclusions?" and the related question "Is it not we who define the terms and use the logic?". So you see, my skepticism lies deeper in the application of the style of argumentation itself. While the law of contradiction may logically (or ontologically) hold true, it is we who create the distincition between opposites and so the choice of what is opposite is, to some degreee, arbitrary.
An example, so you may see where I am coming from, is the "Abstract-Concrete" dichotomy. Consider the genetic code, is it abstract or concrete? How do abstract operations arise from concrete interactions? It is concrete insofar as it requires specific complementary base pairs and molecules in order to be physically instantiated. It is abstract insofar as the "instructions" are by no means contained within the physics and the code is nearly "universal". We have a code that is transcribed and as long as the physics are equiprobable. (As you can see Thymine and Uracil are poth pyramidines and have similar molecular structure and these are typically interchangeable wrt Adenine) the information can be transmitted to different molecules, and yet is not identical or deriveable from any of them, as such it is abstract.
My reason for pointing that out was, the dichotomy itself may be ill-founded, it is we who given information, apply distinctions. So the distinctions cannot necessarily be used to proclaim ontological statements. That we believe p to be the case, does not entail p's being the case. That we believe the dichotomy to hold in this situation, doesn't imply that it must hold. Unless you are to demonstrate how we
know the dichotomy holds, which I would say would be a difficult case and would most likely fall victim to Hume's problem of induction, considering we are applying a "truth of reason" to a "truth of fact".
Logic is a human endeavor, just like any other. We are applying a Boolean algebra to nature. Just like when we apply mathematical models to natural phenomena in Science, we cannot be sure that it is absolutley "true", the same goes for logically dichotomizing nature.
Given that, my problem simply lies with how I don't see how it clarifies anything as to the nature of "consciousness". It is kind of akin to when somebody says "The world is truth-functional of elementary propositions" or something, to which I say (maybe it is a limitation of my intelligence) "What does it
mean for an "elementary proposition" to be true?".
Of course, always keep in mind that I may not convince you, nor you I, for we both have our non-rational inclinations and temperments. I am inclined towards not supposing that nature knows laws, wheras you may be inclined to the contrary.