Is Every Norm on a Finite-Dimensional Vector Space Induced by an Inner Product?

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SUMMARY

In finite-dimensional vector spaces over R or C, not every norm is induced by an inner product. The parallelogram law fails for various norms, specifically all p-norms except when p=2. However, all norm topologies in finite-dimensional spaces are equivalent, allowing the assumption that a norm topology derives from an inner product. The polarization identity can be utilized to derive an inner product from a norm that satisfies the parallelogram law, with distinct formulations for real and complex spaces.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of finite-dimensional vector spaces
  • Familiarity with norms and inner products
  • Knowledge of the parallelogram law in normed spaces
  • Basic concepts of weak and strong convergence
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the parallelogram law in various norms
  • Learn about the polarization identity in both real and complex vector spaces
  • Investigate weak and strong convergence in finite-dimensional normed spaces
  • Explore the implications of norm equivalence in functional analysis
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Mathematicians, students of linear algebra, and researchers in functional analysis who are exploring the relationships between norms and inner products in finite-dimensional vector spaces.

owlpride
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On a finite-dimensional vector space over R or C, is every norm induced by an inner product?

I know that this can fail for infinite-dimensional vector spaces. It just struck me that we never made a distinction between normed vector spaces and inner product spaces in my linear algebra course on finite-dimensional vector spaces.

Why I actually care about it: I wonder why the unit sphere in a finite-dimensional normed vector space is weakly closed. Obviously the statement should be that a sequence in a finite-dimensional space converges weakly if and only if it converges strongly, but I'm not sure how to go about this without using an inner product.
 
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owlpride said:
On a finite-dimensional vector space over R or C, is every norm induced by an inner product?
No. The parallelogram law can and does fail for a variety of norms (e.g. all the p-norms except when p=2).

Why I actually care about it: I wonder why the unit sphere in a finite-dimensional normed vector space is weakly closed. Obviously the statement should be that a sequence in a finite-dimensional space converges weakly if and only if it converges strongly, but I'm not sure how to go about this without using an inner product.
On a finite-dimensional vector space, all norm topologies are equivalent. So you can always assume your norm topology comes from a norm that is induced by an inner product. (In fact it's also true that in this case the weak topology and any norm topology are the same.)
 
It should be noted that if a norm satisfies the parallelogram law, then you can always uncover an inner product from the norm via the "polarization identity"

1/4 ( | v + w |^2 - | v - w |^2 ) = < v , w >
 
wisvuze said:
It should be noted that if a norm satisfies the parallelogram law, then you can always uncover an inner product from the norm via the "polarization identity"

1/4 ( | v + w |^2 - | v - w |^2 ) = < v , w >
Just for the sake of completeness: that form of the polarization identity is only valid if we're working over R; over C, the identity becomes $$\frac14 (\|v+w\|^2 -\|v-w\|^2 + i\|v+iw\|^2 - i\|v-iw\|^2) = \langle v, w\rangle.$$
 

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