Is φ a bijective homomorphism between simple $R$-modules?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of a homomorphism $\phi$ between simple $R$-modules, specifically whether $\phi$ is a bijective homomorphism. Participants explore the implications of $\phi$ being a non-zero homomorphism and the definitions of the involved modules.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Conceptual clarification

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asks whether to show that $\phi$ is bijective to prove it is an isomorphism.
  • Another participant confirms that $M'$ is a simple $R$-module.
  • It is noted that the image of $\phi$, being a submodule of $M'$, must either be zero or equal to $M'$, leading to the conclusion that since $\phi$ is non-zero, its image must be $M'$, suggesting that $\phi$ is onto.
  • Participants discuss that the kernel of $\phi$, being a submodule of the simple module $M$, must also be either zero or equal to $M$, leading to the conclusion that since $\phi$ is non-zero, its kernel must be zero, suggesting that $\phi$ is one-to-one.
  • From these points, it is proposed that $\phi$ is bijective.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the implications of the properties of simple modules regarding the homomorphism $\phi$, but the discussion does not reach a consensus on the overall conclusion of whether $\phi$ is indeed bijective.

Contextual Notes

There is an assumption that the definitions of simple modules and homomorphisms are understood, but no explicit definitions are provided. The discussion does not resolve whether the conclusions drawn about the image and kernel are universally accepted without further context.

mathmari
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Hey! :o

Let $R$ be a commutative ring with unit and $M$ be a $R$-module.

Let $\phi : M\rightarrow M'$ be a non-zero homomorphism of simple $R$-module.
I want to show that $\phi$ is an isomorphism.

To show that we have to show that $\phi$ is bijective, right? (Wondering)

What exactly is the definition of $M'$ ? (Wondering)
 
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mathmari said:
To show that we have to show that $\phi$ is bijective, right? (Wondering)

Yes, that's right.

What exactly is the definition of $M'$ ? (Wondering)
$M'$ is a simple $R$-module.
 
We have that $\text{Im}\phi $ is a $R$-submodule of $M'$. Since $M'$ is simple, it follows that $\text{Im}\phi=O$ or $\text{Im}\phi=M'$.
Since $\phi$ is a non-zero homomorphism, it must be $\text{Im}\phi=M'$, right? (Wondering)
If this is correct, it follows that $\phi$ is onto, or not? (Wondering)

We also have that $\ker\phi $ is a $R$-submodule of $M$. Since $M$ is simple, it follows that $\ker\phi=O$ or $\ker\phi=M$.
The kernel is equal to the set of elements mapped to $0$. Since $\phi$ is non-zero, it must be that $\ker\phi=O$, right? (Wondering)
If this is correct, it follows that $\phi$ is 1-1, or not? (Wondering) Therefore, $\phi$ is bijective.
 
You are correct on all points. (Nod)
 

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