Is φ a bijective homomorphism between simple $R$-modules?

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SUMMARY

The discussion confirms that a non-zero homomorphism $\phi: M \rightarrow M'$ between simple $R$-modules is indeed an isomorphism, establishing that $\phi$ is bijective. Given that $M'$ is a simple $R$-module, the image $\text{Im}\phi$ must equal $M'$, confirming that $\phi$ is onto. Additionally, since the kernel $\ker\phi$ must be trivial (equal to zero), it follows that $\phi$ is one-to-one. Thus, $\phi$ is both injective and surjective, proving it is a bijective homomorphism.

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mathmari
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Hey! :o

Let $R$ be a commutative ring with unit and $M$ be a $R$-module.

Let $\phi : M\rightarrow M'$ be a non-zero homomorphism of simple $R$-module.
I want to show that $\phi$ is an isomorphism.

To show that we have to show that $\phi$ is bijective, right? (Wondering)

What exactly is the definition of $M'$ ? (Wondering)
 
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mathmari said:
To show that we have to show that $\phi$ is bijective, right? (Wondering)

Yes, that's right.

What exactly is the definition of $M'$ ? (Wondering)
$M'$ is a simple $R$-module.
 
We have that $\text{Im}\phi $ is a $R$-submodule of $M'$. Since $M'$ is simple, it follows that $\text{Im}\phi=O$ or $\text{Im}\phi=M'$.
Since $\phi$ is a non-zero homomorphism, it must be $\text{Im}\phi=M'$, right? (Wondering)
If this is correct, it follows that $\phi$ is onto, or not? (Wondering)

We also have that $\ker\phi $ is a $R$-submodule of $M$. Since $M$ is simple, it follows that $\ker\phi=O$ or $\ker\phi=M$.
The kernel is equal to the set of elements mapped to $0$. Since $\phi$ is non-zero, it must be that $\ker\phi=O$, right? (Wondering)
If this is correct, it follows that $\phi$ is 1-1, or not? (Wondering) Therefore, $\phi$ is bijective.
 
You are correct on all points. (Nod)
 

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