Is f(x) Differentiable at x=0?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability of the function \( f(x) \) at \( x=0 \), where \( f(x) \) is defined piecewise in terms of another function \( g(x) \) that is known to be differentiable at that point. Participants explore the conditions under which \( f \) may be differentiable and the implications of the squeeze theorem in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation, Mathematical reasoning, Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant proposes that if \( f \) is differentiable at \( x=0 \), then the limit \( \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0} \) must exist and evaluates it using the properties of \( g(x) \).
  • Another participant questions the definition of \( f(x) \), initially misinterpreting it as \( g(x) \sin(x) \) before correcting themselves.
  • There is a confirmation from participants that the limit \( \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)}{x}=0 \) supports the conclusion that \( \lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0} \) exists and is equal to 0.
  • Several participants express agreement with the reasoning presented regarding the application of the squeeze theorem.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the application of the squeeze theorem and the conclusion that the limit exists and is equal to 0. However, the overall question of whether \( f \) is differentiable at \( x=0 \) remains open to further discussion.

Contextual Notes

There is an assumption that the properties of \( g(x) \) are sufficient to determine the behavior of \( f(x) \) near \( x=0 \), but the discussion does not fully resolve the differentiability of \( f \) itself.

evinda
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Hi! :o
We know that $g$ is differentiable at $x=0$ with $g(0)=g'(0)=0$ and

$$f(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
g(x)sin\frac{1}{x} & ,x\neq 0\\
0& ,x=0
\end{matrix}\right. $$

Is $f$ differentiable at $x=0$.If yes,which is the value of $f'(0)$?

That's what I have tried:

If f is differentiable at $x=0$,then the limit $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}=\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)sin \frac{1}{x} }{x}$ exists.

As we know that g is differentiable at $x=0$,the limit $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)-g(0)}{x-0}$ exists and is equal to $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)}{x}=g'(0)=0$.
Also, $|\frac{g(x)sin\frac{1}{x}}{x} | \leq |\frac{g(x)}{x}|\Rightarrow -\frac{g(x)}{x}\leq \frac{g(x)sin\frac{1}{x}}{x}\leq \frac{g(x)}{x}$. We know that $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)}{x}=0$ ,so from the squeeze theorem,the limit $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ exists and is equal to 0.

Could you tell me if it is right? :o
 
Last edited:
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evinda said:
$$f(x)=\left\{\begin{matrix}
g(x)sin\frac{1}{x} & ,x\neq 0\\
0& ,x=0
\end{matrix}\right. $$

Is this $$g(x) \sin (x) $$ ?
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
Is this $$g(x) \sin (x) $$ ?

No,it is $g(x)sin\frac{1}{x}$ ! I had some typos.I edited my post right now! :o
 
Last edited:
evinda said:
We know that $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{g(x)}{x}=0$ ,so from the squeeze theorem,the limit $\lim_{x \to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ exists and is equal to 0.

Could you tell me if it is right? :o
Yes it is. :)
 
Opalg said:
Yes it is. :)

Nice :) Thank you very much!
 

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