Is f(x,y) Linear if f(x,y)-f(0,0)=x*(d/dx)[f(x,y)]+y*(d/dy)[f(x,y)]?

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The discussion centers on the mathematical proof that the function f(x,y) is linear if the equation f(x,y)-f(0,0)=x*(d/dx)[f(x,y)]+y*(d/dy)[f(x,y)] holds for all (x,y) in R². The user demonstrates that this relationship appears valid for various functions but seeks a definitive proof. It is established that if f(x,y) is linear, it can be expressed as f(x,y)=Ax+By+C, where A, B, and C are constants, leading to the conclusion that f(x,y)-f(0,0)=Ax+By.

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rman144
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I've been trying to prove that if the following statement holds for all (x,y)ER^2, f must be a linear function:

f(x,y)-f(0,0)=x*(d/dx)[f(x,y)]+y*(d/dy)[f(x,y)]

It seems to work for any function I plug in, but I'm unable to establish why this always works. Also, when I say (d/dx)[f(x,y)], I mean the derivative of f(x,y) with respect to x.

Thanks in advance for any help or ideas.
 
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IF f(x,y) is a LINEAR function, then you know thay f(x,y)=Ax+By+C, with A, B and C being constants.

Thus, f(x,y)-f(0,0)=Ax+By.

Does that help?
 

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