Is f(z) := x^2 + iy^2 Holomorphic Anywhere?

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The function f(z) := x^2 + iy^2 is not holomorphic anywhere. Although the total derivative is given by the matrix \(\begin{pmatrix} 2x & 0 \\ 0 & 2y \end{pmatrix}\), the Cauchy-Riemann equations are not satisfied in any neighborhood of the point, which is a requirement for a function to be analytic. The term "holomorphic anywhere" is a misnomer; holomorphic implies analytic for all complex numbers, and thus the correct inquiry is whether the function is analytic at any point.

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If z = x + iy then the function f(z) := x^2 + iy^2, has total derivative,

\begin{pmatrix} 2x & 0 \\ 0 & 2y \end{pmatrix}

so surely by the Cauchy–Riemann equations this is complex differentiable at x = y, but is this function holomorphic anywhere?

Thanks!
 
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No, it is not analytic anywhere. In order to be analytic at a point, the Cauchy-Riemann equations must be satisfied in some neighborhood of the point and that does not happen here.

By the way, the phrase "holomorphic anywhere" does not make sense. "Holomorphic" means "analytic for all complex numbers". You mean to ask if it was analytic anywhere.
 
HallsofIvy said:
By the way, the phrase "holomorphic anywhere" does not make sense. "Holomorphic" means "analytic for all complex numbers". You mean to ask if it was analytic anywhere.
? According to the Wikipedia article, holomorphic at a point means complex-differentiable in some neighborhood of the point. So asking whether a function is holomorphic anywhere does make sense.
 

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