Is Fermat's Last Theorem Still Unsolvable in Base n?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the implications of Fermat's Last Theorem (FLT) in base n, particularly for prime numbers greater than 2. It presents a series of mathematical equalities derived from FLT, demonstrating that if A, B, and C are not divisible by prime n>2, then no positive integer solutions exist for the equation A^n + B^n = C^n. The analysis concludes that the transformations lead to contradictions, affirming that FLT remains unsolvable in these conditions. The discussion also highlights the necessity of clarifying the assumptions made in the derivations.

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Victor Sorokine
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I had lost: the target date is up! Here is farewell miniature

It is common knowledge:
If A^n+B^n=C^n, and ABC does not divided by prime n>2, then, according to Little Fermat’s theorem, in base n for number A, B, C there exist next equalities:

1a°. A^n=(C-B)P, где C-B=a^n, P=p^n, A=ap;
1b°. B^n=C^n-A^n=(C-A)Q, где C-A=b^n, Q=q^n, A=aq
1c°. C^n=A^n+B^n=(A+B)R, где A+B=c^n, R=r^n, A=ar
and the numbers
2°. A+B-C=ap+bq-cr=u’n^k, where k>0 (corollary from Little Fermat’s theorem).
3°. (A+B)-(C-B)-(C-A)=2u’n^k, where numbers (A+B), (C-B), (C-A) are composite.

Then, after transformation of the last digit in the number c into n-1 (with help of multiplication of Fermat’s equality by corresponding number d^n), from 2°-3° the next equalities follow:
4a°. a*x=(c*-b*)x,
4b°. b*y=(c*-a*)y,
4c°. c*z=(a*+b*)z
where a*, b*, c* are the last digits in the numbers a, b, c,
x, y, z are the last digits in the numbers p, q, r [and numbers (c^n-b^n)/(c-b), (c^n-a^n)/(c-a), (a^n+b^n)/(a+b)].
On rewrite 3° as:
5°. (a*+b*)z-(c*-b*)x-(c*-a*)y=a*z+b*z-c*x+b*x-c*y+a*y=2u’n^k, or
a*(z+y)+b*(z+x)-c*(x+y)= 2u’n^k.
Comparing 5° and 4°, we have:
x=z+y, y=z+x, z=x+y, whence it follows that x=y=z=0. But according to Little Fermat’s theorem, x=y=z=1. Therefore, Fermat’equality has no positive solutions.

If c* (or b*) is equal to zero, then also x=y=z=0.

Happy New Year!
 
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The first line, 1ao contains something completely unjustified.Why should A^n factor as (C-B)p^n, with C-B an n'th power too? What has FLT got to do with that? What is p? Nothing there requires at any point that n>2, by the look of it. (It would be nice if you were to highlight the points where you use the hypotheses of the theorem.)
 

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