Is infinity / infinity equal to 1?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the mathematical expression of the indeterminate form infinity/infinity and whether it can be equated to 1. Participants explore various approaches and reasoning related to this concept, including the use of Gamma and Product functions, limits, and the implications of treating infinity as a number.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents a proof suggesting that infinity/infinity can be equated to 1 using Gamma and Product functions, seeking feedback on this approach.
  • Another participant argues that the expression infinity/infinity can yield all positive real values depending on the limits taken, indicating that it is not a fixed quantity.
  • A different participant cautions against treating infinity as a number, stating that doing so leads to inconsistencies and undefined results.
  • One member mentions the possibility of formalizing infinity as a number within the extended real number line, but notes that this does not resolve the undefined nature of expressions like infinity/infinity.
  • Another participant emphasizes that the term "indeterminate form" reflects the variability of results when taking limits, highlighting that different approaches yield different outcomes.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on whether infinity/infinity can be equated to 1. Multiple competing views remain regarding the treatment of infinity and the implications of the indeterminate form.

Contextual Notes

The discussion reveals limitations in the treatment of infinity, including the dependence on definitions and the unresolved nature of mathematical expressions involving infinity.

pradyumna1974
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Dear Members,
I tried to prove this indeterminate form of infinity / infinity as 1. I could come up a reasonable approach
with Gamma and Product functions. I posted my proof as video in Youtube. Here is the URL for the video.
I would like to receive feedback and challenges on where my approach is going wrong in this proof?

Youtube URL : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9W2LclHwQzs

I tried to prove that

infinity / infinity = (infinity ^ 0) = Gamma(1) = ProductPI(0) = 1

Thank you for your help!
Pradyumna
 
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Just a comment, but how your attempt deals with following ($$a > 0$$):

$$\lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{ax}{x} = a \lim_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{x} = a \cdot 1,$$

and one obtains that $$\frac{\infty}{\infty}$$ can take all positive real values...
 
You can't do $\frac{\infty}{\infty}=\infty^{1-1}=\infty^0$ ... that is, treating infinity as if it were a number; otherwise, you'd get all sorts of weird results.
 
Last edited:
pradyumna1974 said:
Dear Members,
I tried to prove this indeterminate form of infinity / infinity as 1. I could come up a reasonable approach
with Gamma and Product functions. I posted my proof as video in Youtube. Here is the URL for the video.
I would like to receive feedback and challenges on where my approach is going wrong in this proof?

Youtube URL : https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9W2LclHwQzs

I tried to prove that

infinity / infinity = (infinity ^ 0) = Gamma(1) = ProductPI(0) = 1

Thank you for your help!
Pradyumna

Keep in mind that "infinity / infinity" is a FORM, not a NUMBER. Don't treat it like a number. "infinity / infinity" is a theoretical condition that never is actually attained. There is a very big difference between "increases without bound" and "we arrived somewhere finite".
 
It is possible to formalize the notion of $\infty$ as an "ordinary number" by introducing the "extended real number line" $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ and topologizing it with the order topology. In my limited experience, this is more of a convenience in certain areas such as real and convex analysis, and not so much a source of insight. Also, the algebraic properties of $\overline{\mathbb{R}}$ are not very good. In particular, expressions such as $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ are still undefined, for reasons such as those pointed out nicely in post #2 and the other posts above.
 
You use the phrase "indeterminant form". Surely you understand that the reason that $\frac{\infty}{\infty}$ is called an "indeterminant form" is that taking the limit as the numerator and denominators go to infinity, in different ways will give different results. Certainly $\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{x}{x}= 1$ but $\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{ax}{x}= a$ for any value of a. all of which can be thought of as "$\frac{\infty}{\infty}$".
 
Last edited:

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