Is it correct to use two different variables when solving this integral?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the correct approach to integrating the force equation F = -dV/dr from r₀ to r. The initial method presented, using a different variable r', was deemed incorrect. The correct formulation is to integrate using the same variable, resulting in the expression ∫_{r₀}^{r} F dr = -∫_{r₀}^{r} (dV/dr') dr', which simplifies to V(r) - V(r₀). This confirms the identity between the two integral expressions, validating the second method as the accurate approach.

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mlazos
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[SOLVED] I want a second opinion

We know the equation

[tex]F=-\frac{dV}{dr}[/tex]

we want to find the integral from [tex]r_{0}[/tex] to [tex]r[/tex].

I have seen someone doing this

[tex]\int^{r}_{r_{0}}Fdr'=-\int^{r}_{r_{0}}\frac{dV}{dr}dr'[/tex]

I am a mathematician and the way I was doing at the university was

[tex]F=-\frac{dV}{dr}\RightarrowFdr=dV[/tex]

and then I integrate

[tex]\int^{r}_{r_{0}}Fdr=-\int^{}_{r_{0}}dV[/tex]

Since the potential depends on r we can integrate. So I would like someone who knows the subject to tell me if the first way is correct since I know the second is correct. Its difficult for me to accept the introduction of another variable r' while we have the r itself.
 
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Well, the first one is incorrect; it should be:
[tex]\int_{r_{0}}^{r}Fdr'=-\int_{r_{0}}^{r}\frac{dV}{dr'}dr'[/tex]

Now, the second integral simply equals [tex]V(r)-V(r_{0})[/tex], thus, we have identity between the expressions:
[tex]\int_{r_{0}}^{r}\frac{dV}{dr'}dr'=\int_{V(r_{0})}^{V(r)}dV[/tex]
 
ok the first way is what a I saw, exactly the way I wrote it. With your correction makes sense. Thank you very much for your answer.
 

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