Oh ok. In that case, no it's not true. In fact, in general E(g(x)) is not equal to g(E(x)) which is due to the definition of E(x) as an integral with x as the integrand. This makes it inherently difficult for these nice properties to occur, as integrals don't have "nice" properties past linearity. So while E(aX+bY) = aE(X) + bE(Y), E(X^n) is not anything nice in terms of E(x).