Is Squaring the Momentum Operator the Same as Applying it Twice?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the interpretation of the momentum operator in quantum mechanics, specifically addressing whether squaring the momentum operator is equivalent to applying it twice. The equation from Stephen Gasiorowicz's "Quantum Physics" illustrates that the momentum operator, denoted as \( p_{op} \), when squared, yields the energy of a free particle. Participants clarify that applying the momentum operator twice to an eigenstate results in squaring the eigenvalue, confirming that \( \hat{p}^2 \) can be viewed as the "momentum-squared" operator.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of quantum mechanics principles, particularly eigenstates and operators.
  • Familiarity with the momentum operator notation \( \hat{p} \) and its mathematical implications.
  • Knowledge of the Schrödinger equation and its components, including wave functions \( \psi(x, t) \).
  • Basic grasp of linear algebra concepts as they apply to quantum operators.
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  • Learn about eigenvalues and eigenstates in the context of quantum operators.
  • Explore the implications of the Schrödinger equation for free particles and energy calculations.
  • Investigate the mathematical framework of quantum mechanics, including operator algebra.
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Students of quantum mechanics, physicists working with operator theory, and anyone interested in the mathematical foundations of quantum physics will benefit from this discussion.

Sylvia Else
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I'm, slowly, working through "Quantum Physics" by Stephen Gasiorowicz, second edition. On page 49, he gives the equation

i\hbar\frac{\partial ψ(x, t)}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}\frac{\partial ^{2}ψ(x, t)}{\partial x^2}

He then makes the identification (h/i)(\partial/\partial x) = p_{op}, which he has previously identified as the momentum operator, and rewrites the equation as

i\hbar\frac{\partial ψ(x, t)}{\partial t} = \frac{p^2_{op}}{2m}ψ(x, t)

Then he observes that the operator on the right (which I construe to mean p^2_{op}/2m) is just the energy for a free particle. And that's where I get confused. As I understand it, the square of the momentum divided by twice the mass gives the energy, but p^2_{op} isn't saying use the momentum squared, but apply the momentum operator twice.

What am I missing here?

Sylvia.
 
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Consider a state with a definite value of momentum. In QM, this means a state that is an eigenstate of the momentum operator. For example, a state ##\psi(x)## satisfying

##\hat{p} \psi(x) = k \psi(x)##

(where ##\hat{p}## is the momentum operator) has a momentum of ##k##. Suppose we apply the momentum operator twice:

##\hat{p}^2 \psi(x) = \hat{p} \hat{p} \psi(x) = \hat{p} (k \psi(x)) = k \hat{p} \psi(x) = k^2 \psi(x)##.

So an eigenstate of the operator ##\hat{p}## with eigenvalue ##k## is an eigenstate of the operator ##\hat{p}^2## with eigenvalue ##k^2##. The point is that applying the operator twice gives us exactly what we want: it squares the eigenvalue. We can legitimately think of the operator ##\hat{p}^2## as the "momentum-squared" operator.
 
OK, I can follow that, thanks. He starts discussing eigenfunctions and eigentvalues a bit later. Perhaps readers are meant to take it on trust until then.

Sylvia.
 
The mathematical operation of <squaring> a linear operator means <applying it twice>:

\hat{p}^2 := \hat{p}\circ\hat{p}

(For simplicity, let's neglect hat the momentum operator is unbounded).
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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