Is Squaring the Momentum Operator the Same as Applying it Twice?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation of the momentum operator in quantum mechanics, specifically whether squaring the momentum operator is equivalent to applying it twice to a wave function. The context includes theoretical aspects of quantum mechanics and operator algebra.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Sylvia expresses confusion about the identification of the momentum operator squared with the application of the momentum operator twice, referencing a specific equation from a textbook.
  • One participant explains that a state with a definite momentum is an eigenstate of the momentum operator, and applying the momentum operator twice results in squaring the eigenvalue, thus supporting the idea that the operator can be viewed as a "momentum-squared" operator.
  • A later reply clarifies that squaring a linear operator mathematically means applying it twice, although it notes the complexity of the momentum operator being unbounded.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants appear to have differing interpretations of the relationship between the momentum operator and its squared form, with some supporting the equivalence of squaring and applying twice, while others express confusion about this identification. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the clarity of this concept.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the momentum operator being unbounded, which may introduce additional complexities in the discussion that are not fully explored.

Sylvia Else
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I'm, slowly, working through "Quantum Physics" by Stephen Gasiorowicz, second edition. On page 49, he gives the equation

i\hbar\frac{\partial ψ(x, t)}{\partial t} = -\frac{\hbar^{2}}{2m}\frac{\partial ^{2}ψ(x, t)}{\partial x^2}

He then makes the identification (h/i)(\partial/\partial x) = p_{op}, which he has previously identified as the momentum operator, and rewrites the equation as

i\hbar\frac{\partial ψ(x, t)}{\partial t} = \frac{p^2_{op}}{2m}ψ(x, t)

Then he observes that the operator on the right (which I construe to mean p^2_{op}/2m) is just the energy for a free particle. And that's where I get confused. As I understand it, the square of the momentum divided by twice the mass gives the energy, but p^2_{op} isn't saying use the momentum squared, but apply the momentum operator twice.

What am I missing here?

Sylvia.
 
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Consider a state with a definite value of momentum. In QM, this means a state that is an eigenstate of the momentum operator. For example, a state ##\psi(x)## satisfying

##\hat{p} \psi(x) = k \psi(x)##

(where ##\hat{p}## is the momentum operator) has a momentum of ##k##. Suppose we apply the momentum operator twice:

##\hat{p}^2 \psi(x) = \hat{p} \hat{p} \psi(x) = \hat{p} (k \psi(x)) = k \hat{p} \psi(x) = k^2 \psi(x)##.

So an eigenstate of the operator ##\hat{p}## with eigenvalue ##k## is an eigenstate of the operator ##\hat{p}^2## with eigenvalue ##k^2##. The point is that applying the operator twice gives us exactly what we want: it squares the eigenvalue. We can legitimately think of the operator ##\hat{p}^2## as the "momentum-squared" operator.
 
OK, I can follow that, thanks. He starts discussing eigenfunctions and eigentvalues a bit later. Perhaps readers are meant to take it on trust until then.

Sylvia.
 
The mathematical operation of <squaring> a linear operator means <applying it twice>:

\hat{p}^2 := \hat{p}\circ\hat{p}

(For simplicity, let's neglect hat the momentum operator is unbounded).
 

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