Is the Airy Function Normalized?

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SUMMARY

The Airy function of the first kind, denoted as Ai(x), is indeed normalized over the entire axis. The integral of Ai(x) dx converges to 1, confirming its normalization property. This information is explicitly detailed in section 9.10.11 of the Digital Library of Mathematical Functions (DLMF) at http://dlmf.nist.gov/9.10.

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Irid
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Is the Airy function (of the first kind) normalized? If I take the integral

Ai(x) dx

on the entire axis, does it converge to 1? I can't find this property by googling around :(
 
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cool, thanks mate!
 

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