Is the Field Operator in Quantum Field Theory an Observable or a Creation Tool?

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The discussion centers on the dual role of the field operator ##\phi(x)## in quantum field theory (QFT) as both an observable and a creation tool. Participants note that while the field strength is considered the observable, the field operator is often introduced as a means to create excitations. This leads to apparent contradictions between the two interpretations, particularly in how the operator acts on states. The conversation draws parallels to the harmonic oscillator in quantum mechanics, where position can be expressed in terms of creation and annihilation operators. Ultimately, it suggests that both interpretations can coexist by utilizing different bases, with the Fock basis being more practical for QFT applications.
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Hello!
I'm finally starting to get a grip around quantum field theory. The last hang up is the following:
I've been told that since we are quantizing a field, the field strength is the observable. Now analogous to QM we then define a field of hermitian operators, ##\phi(x)##, which give a hermitian operator in every point in spacetime (i.e. for every observable). However in most books the field ##\phi(x)## is introduces as a excitation/creation field. These two interpretations seems to be contradicitve.
If say ##\phi## is nonzero only at a point x (lets forget about smoothness conditions), and we act on a state with it.. it seems to me that we should expect the following result according to the first definition:
\phi \mid \psi \rangle = \psi(x) \mid \psi \rangle
and the following according to the second:
\phi \mid \psi \rangle = \kappa \mid \phi, \psi \rangle.

Is the first interpretation wrong or can they be fused togheter in some way?
 
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You just choose different bases. With the annihilation and creation operators wrt. the single-particle momentum eigenstates you create the Fock basis (occupation-number basis), i.e., states with determined particle number. The other basis is overcomplete and the eigenstates of the fields. The latter you use to establish the path-integral. For further explanations, see my QFT manuscript:

http://fias.uni-frankfurt.de/~hees/publ/lect.pdf
 
Kontilera said:
Hello!
I'm finally starting to get a grip around quantum field theory. The last hang up is the following:
I've been told that since we are quantizing a field, the field strength is the observable. Now analogous to QM we then define a field of hermitian operators, ##\phi(x)##, which give a hermitian operator in every point in spacetime (i.e. for every observable). However in most books the field ##\phi(x)## is introduces as a excitation/creation field. These two interpretations seems to be contradicitve.

It's just like the harmonic oscillator in regular QM. There the main observable is ##x##, but we can write ##x## as a sum of creation and annihilation operators: schematically ##x = a + a^\dagger##, ignoring normalizations.

In the QM of the harmonic oscillator, there are two useful bases for the Hilbert space. There's the position basis, in which ##x## is diagonal. Then there's the Fock basis, in which the Hamiltonian is diagonal and ##a## and ##a^\dagger## are seen to be lowering and raising operators.

Similarly in QFT you can consider two bases. In one the field operator ##\phi(x)## is diagonal. This basis is not too useful, though. The more useful basis is the Fock basis, consisting of states of definite numbers of particles each with definite momentum.
 
Last edited:
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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