Is the following set equal to the empty set?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the set defined as A={x: x∈A ⇒ y∈A, x≠y} and whether this set is equal to the empty set. Participants explore the implications of this definition, its logical structure, and the existence of a universal set.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the coherence of the definition, suggesting that anything not in A would also be in A.
  • Another participant proposes that if A existed, it would imply the existence of a universal set, which is not accepted in standard set theory.
  • A participant reformulates the definition using logical quantifiers, suggesting that it leads to the conclusion that A must be the universal set if it exists.
  • There is a discussion about the correct interpretation of the set-builder notation and whether the original formulation accurately reflects the intended meaning.
  • Several participants engage in clarifying the logical implications of the definitions and the relationships between the variables involved.
  • One participant acknowledges a misunderstanding regarding the use of an unbound variable in the definition, indicating a potential ambiguity in the formulation.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on whether the set A is equal to the empty set. Multiple competing views are presented regarding the definition and implications of the set.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights limitations in the clarity of set definitions and the assumptions regarding the existence of a universal set. There are unresolved questions about the logical structure of the definitions provided.

poutsos.A
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Is the following set equal to the empty set??

A={x:[tex]x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y[/tex]},if yes prove it ,if not disproved it
 
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This doesn't make sense. For one thing any thing that is not in A will be in A.
 


A Is a set of x elements in a such way that if x belongs to A THEN ANY y different from x belongs to A.

Doesn't that make sense??
 


Well, if A existed, it would be the universal set (because of what Focus said). But there is no universal set. So A is not a set.
 


poutsos.A said:
A={x:[tex]x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y[/tex]}

This is just
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]A=\mathcal{U}[/tex]

So if you have a universal set, A is it; if not, the definition is ill-defined.
Edit: What Preno said.
 


CRGreathouse said:
This is just
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)\Longrightarrow x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longrightarrow \left(\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]\forall x\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A[/tex]
[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A[/tex]
which is
[tex]A=\mathcal{U}[/tex]

So if you have a universal set, A is it; if not, the definition is ill-defined.
Edit: What Preno said.
.

LETS take it line by line:

1st line you have written: [tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex].

DO you actually mean:[tex]x\in A\Longleftrightarrow(x\in A\Longrightarrow\forall y(y\neq x\wedge y\in A))[/tex].

If yes, how did you get that?
 


I'm just expanding the definition of set-builder notation.
 


expanding set builder notation is:

[tex]x\in A\Longleftrightarrow[(x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y][/tex]

Now how from the above you get :


[tex]\forall x\;\; x\in A\Longleftrightarrow \left(x\in A\Rightarrow\forall y\neq x\;\; y\in A\right)[/tex].
 


poutsos.A said:
expanding set builder notation is:

[tex]x\in A\Longleftrightarrow[(x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y][/tex]

Wait, you really meant
[tex](x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y[/tex]
in your original formulation when you wrote
[tex]x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A ,x\neq y[/tex]?

That's very different!
 
  • #10


yes

A= { [tex]x: (x\in A\Longrightarrow y\in A)\wedge x\neq y[/tex]}

sorry
 
  • #11


So your definition is given in terms of the unbound variable y? I was assuming in my translation that you intended for the definition to be a sentence.
 
  • #12


the whole sentence
 

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