Is the Function f(x) = x^2 Injective?

You can't provide a counterexample.Look at the definition of injective function. You'll see that it is a logical statement. To show it is not true all you need is a counterexample. You don't need any logical manipulation to prove it.
  • #1
Korisnik
62
1

Homework Statement


Prove that ##f: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}, f(x) = x^2## is not injective.

Homework Equations


Definition of an injection: function ##f:A\to B## is an injection if and only if ##\forall a,b \in A, f(a) = f(b) \Rightarrow a = b##.

The Attempt at a Solution


##f: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}##
Let ##a,b \in \mathscr{D_f}##, suppose ##f(a) = f(b)##, then ##a^2=b^2##. By solving this equation we get ##a=b\ or \ a = -b##.

This is where I'm stuck. How do I prove that (and is the following what I have to prove) ##\forall a,b \in \mathbb{R}, (a = b \vee a=-b) \Rightarrow (a = b) \equiv F##?

By introducing the substitutions ##A := (a =b), B:= (a = -b)##, the proposition is reduced to ##(A \vee B) \Rightarrow A \equiv F##.

Now, what am I looking for in the truth table? The expression is obviously not always false, but for the ##F## to hold I have to find one case where the proposition does not hold and I've proven my hypothesis. From the truth table, if ##B \equiv T, A \equiv F## we get ##T \Rightarrow F##, which is false; consequently, our problem is solved.

Is my approach correct, and is there another approach? Thank you in advance.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
Korisnik said:

Homework Statement


Prove that ##f: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}, f(x) = x^2## is not injective.

Homework Equations


Definition of an injection: function ##f:A\to B## is an injection if and only if ##\forall a,b \in A, f(a) = f(b) \Rightarrow a = b##.

The Attempt at a Solution


##f: \mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}##
Let ##a,b \in \mathscr{D_f}##, suppose ##f(a) = f(b)##, then ##a^2=b^2##. By solving this equation we get ##a=b\ or \ a = -b##.

This is where I'm stuck. How do I prove that (and is the following what I have to prove) ##\forall a,b \in \mathbb{R}, (a = b \vee a=-b) \Rightarrow (a = b) \equiv F##?

By introducing the substitutions ##A := (a =b), B:= (a = -b)##, the proposition is reduced to ##(A \vee B) \Rightarrow A \equiv F##.

Now, what am I looking for in the truth table? The expression is obviously not always false, but for the ##F## to hold I have to find one case where the proposition does not hold and I've proven my hypothesis. From the truth table, if ##B \equiv T, A \equiv F## we get ##T \Rightarrow F##, which is false; consequently, our problem is solved.

Is my approach correct, and is there another approach? Thank you in advance.

It is as simple of finding a counterexample. In this case, there are many.
 
  • #3
Math_QED said:
It is as simple of finding a counterexample. In this case, there are many.
Thank you. Would you mind addressing my question? So far I've found one "explanation", where the author says that "it is obvious", after finding the solutions to the equation.
 
  • #4
Korisnik said:
Thank you. Would you mind addressing my question? So far I've found one "explanation", where the author says that "it is obvious", after finding the solutions of the equation.

For example we have:

##f(-1) = f(1)## but ## -1 \neq 1## thus f is not injective
 
  • #5
Math_QED said:
For example we have:

##f(-1) = f(1)## but ## -1 \neq 1## thus f is not injective
The explanation the book provides is: "The solution of the equation is ##|a| = |b|##, that is, we have 4 solutions in ##\mathbb{R}##, which means that the given implication does not hold because ##a## and ##b## obviously don't have to be equal; consequently, the proposition is false."

I'm intrigued as to how the "obvious" step is performed formally and not intuitively.
 
  • #6
Korisnik said:
I'm intrigued as to how the "obvious" step is performed formally and not intuitively.

@Math_QED 's answer has been formally!

Math_QED said:
##f(-1) = f(1)## but ##-1 \neq 1## thus f is not injective
... proves ##\exists a,b \in A \, : \, f(a) = f(b) \wedge a \neq b##, which is the negation of ##f## being injective.
 
  • #7
Korisnik said:
Is my approach correct, and is there another approach? Thank you in advance.
Another approach was to draw a graph of ##y = x^2## and look for two values of ##x## with the same value of ##y##.
 
  • #8
fresh_42 said:
@Math_QED 's answer has been formally!
...which I could've gotten without the equations obtained by the author of the book. So what is their purpose? I'm not practicing (dis)proving the injectivity, but the logic of proving "obvious" statements formally.
 
  • #9
Korisnik said:
...which I could've gotten without the equations obtained by the author of the book. So what is their purpose? I'm not practicing (dis)proving the injectivity, but the logic of proving "obvious" statements formally.
In this case it seems, that a feasible solution depends strongly on the rules of logical deviations and and the amount of arithmetic which you regard as being allowed to use. Neither of it is obvious to us, and assuming the usual logic and arithmetic, the given two(!) answers are enough.
In addition we can't say what the equations obtained by the author of the book and their purpose are, since we don't know them. Maybe it is simply to practice the handling of logical terms.

I can't see why an obvious result should be artificially complicated.

A counterexample even holds in the case you are rejecting indirect proofs or proofs by contradiction. The negation of an all-quantifier is simply an existence-quantifier. Otherwise you should explain what "not injective" means.
 
  • Like
Likes Korisnik
  • #10
Korisnik said:
...which I could've gotten without the equations obtained by the author of the book. So what is their purpose? I'm not practicing (dis)proving the injectivity, but the logic of proving "obvious" statements formally.

You're getting confused about what constitutes a proof. To prove for example that not all whole numbers are odd, you only have to find one that is not odd.

To prove this sort of thing requires only a single counterexample, nothing more.

To prove something positive, such as to prove there are infinitely many primes requires a logical proof.
 

FAQ: Is the Function f(x) = x^2 Injective?

1. What is the definition of injection in logic?

An injection, also known as an injective function, is a type of mathematical function that maps distinct elements in the domain to distinct elements in the range. In other words, every input has a unique output. This is often referred to as the "one-to-one" property.

2. How is injection different from other types of functions?

Unlike surjective functions, which map the entire range to the domain, and bijective functions, which are both injective and surjective, injections only map one distinct element in the domain to one distinct element in the range. Additionally, injections cannot have two inputs that produce the same output.

3. How can you prove that a function is injective?

To prove that a function is injective, you can use a proof by contradiction. Assume that there are two distinct inputs in the domain that produce the same output. Then, show that this assumption leads to a contradiction. This proves that the function is indeed injective.

4. Can an injection have multiple outputs for one input?

No, an injection cannot have multiple outputs for one input. As stated earlier, every input must have a unique output in order for a function to be considered an injection. If there are multiple outputs for one input, the function is not injective.

5. How is injection used in real-world applications?

Injections are commonly used in computer science and engineering to map inputs to outputs, such as in data encryption algorithms or error-correcting codes. They are also used in economics and game theory to model decision-making processes and outcomes. Injections have many practical applications in various fields of study.

Similar threads

Replies
10
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
14
Views
1K
Replies
7
Views
1K
Replies
15
Views
1K
Replies
12
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Back
Top