zedya said:
So, one more question (thanks a lot for this reply by the way, beautiful explanation)... how would you prove the above? I always get confused with notation stuff... how would you prove that
[tex]\langle x| \hat{H}| y \rangle = H(x,-i\partial_{x}) \delta(x-y)[/tex]
is true mathematically?
Thanks again.
In the X-representation, and for an arbitrary ket [itex]|\Psi\rangle[/itex], we have;
[tex]\langle x|\hat{X}|\Psi \rangle = x \langle x| \Psi \rangle \equiv x\Psi(x)[/tex]
[tex]\langle x|\hat{P}|\Psi\rangle = -i \partial_{x}\langle x|\Psi\rangle \equiv\ –i \partial_{x}\Psi(x)[/tex]
Now letting [itex]|\Psi\rangle[/itex] be the position eigenket [itex]|y\rangle[/itex], we get
[tex]\langle x |\hat{X}| y \rangle =x \langle x |y \rangle = x \delta (x-y)[/tex]
[tex]\langle x |\hat{P}| y \rangle = -i \partial_{x}\delta(x-y)[/tex]
Next, write
[tex]
\langle x |\hat{P}^{2} | \Psi \rangle = \int \ dy \ \langle x |\hat{P} | y \rangle \langle y | \hat{P} | \Psi \rangle[/tex]
and use the above relations to obtain
[tex]
\langle x |\hat{P}^{2} | \Psi \rangle = (-i)^{2} \partial_{x} \int \ dy \delta(x-y) \partial_{y} \langle y | \psi \rangle = - \frac{\partial^{2}}{\partial x^{2}} \langle x | \Psi \rangle[/tex]
Again, let [itex]|\Psi \rangle = |y \rangle[/itex] to get
[tex]\langle x | \hat{P}^{2} | y \rangle = -i \frac{\partial^{2}}{\partial x^{2}} \delta (x-y)[/tex]
Now if you put the above in the Hamiltonian matrix ( 2m = 1),
[tex]\langle x| \hat{H} |y \rangle = \langle x | \hat{P}^{2}| y\rangle + \langle x | \hat{V}| y \rangle[/tex]
you will get what you wanted.
Regards
sam