Is the harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian an unbounded operator?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on whether the Hamiltonian operator for the harmonic oscillator is an unbounded operator. Participants explore the implications of boundedness and boundedness from below, engaging with mathematical definitions and properties of the operator within the context of quantum mechanics.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant argues that the Hamiltonian is unbounded based on the behavior of its eigenvalues and eigenfunctions, stating that no constant can bound the operator for all square integrable functions.
  • Another participant asserts that the Hamiltonian is only bounded from below, prompting further inquiries about the rigorous meaning of this term.
  • Several participants seek clarification on the concept of being "bounded from below," with one suggesting that it relates to the spectrum being a subset of the reals that is bounded from the left.
  • Another participant proposes a definition of "bounded from below" involving the existence of a constant that bounds the operator from below for all functions in the Hilbert space.
  • A participant references an external source for further reading on unbounded operators, indicating a desire for authoritative clarification.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the boundedness of the Hamiltonian, with some asserting it is unbounded while others claim it is only bounded from below. The discussion remains unresolved, with no consensus reached on the definitions or implications of these terms.

Contextual Notes

Participants have not fully defined the assumptions or implications of their claims regarding boundedness, and there are unresolved mathematical steps in the arguments presented.

AxiomOfChoice
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My answer would be "yes," and here's my argument: If we let
[tex] H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac 12 m \omega^2 x^2,[/tex]
it is a Hermitian operator with familiar normalized eigenfunctions [itex]\phi_n(x)[/itex] (these are products of Hermite polynomials and gaussians) and associated eigenvalues [itex]E_n = \hbar \omega(n + 1/2)[/itex], [itex]n = 0,1,2,\ldots[/itex]. I claim [itex]H[/itex] is unbounded because, in order to be bounded, there would need to be a constant [itex]c\in \mathbb R[/itex] such that [itex]\| H \psi \| \leq c \|\psi\|[/itex] for all [itex]\psi \in L^2(-\infty,\infty)[/itex], the Hilbert space of square integrable functions (i.e., the norm in question is the [itex]L^2[/itex] norm). No such [itex]c[/itex] exists, however; if we focus only on the eigenfunctions, we have
[tex] H \phi_n(x) = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2) \phi_n,<br /> [/itex]<br /> so <br /> [tex] \| H \phi_n(x) \| = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2) \| \phi_n(x) \| = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2),[/tex]<br /> which can be made larger than any constant we care to pick by taking [itex]n[/itex] large enough. Hence [itex]H[/itex] is an unbounded operator.<br /> <br /> ...is this correct?[/tex]
 
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The Hamiltonian is only bounded from below.
 
xepma said:
The Hamiltonian is only bounded from below.
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?
 
AxiomOfChoice said:
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?

May be it means: the spectrum is bounded from below(left) subset of the reals?
 
AxiomOfChoice said:
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?

Maybe this:
AxiomOfChoice said:
...in order to be bounded from below, there would need to be a constant [itex]c\in \mathbb R[/itex] such that [itex]\| H \psi \| \geq c \|\psi\|[/itex] for all [itex]\psi \in L^2(-\infty,\infty)[/itex], the Hilbert space of square integrable functions (i.e., the norm in question is the [itex]L^2[/itex] norm).
?
 

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