High School Is the highest frequency possible the inverse of Planck time?

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The discussion centers on whether the highest frequency possible is the inverse of Planck time, with current theories suggesting it is not definitively the case. There is a recognition that experimental data at the Planck scale is limited, leaving room for potential theoretical breakdowns. Participants are encouraged to explore further insights on Planck scale units, which do not impose limitations. The conversation also touches on the practical highest frequency achievable today, though specifics are not detailed. Overall, the relationship between frequency and Planck time remains an open question in theoretical physics.
brajesh
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Is the highest frequency possible the inverse of Planck time?
Is the highest frequency possible the inverse of Planck time?
Separate or connected question, what's the highest frequency achievable practically today?
 
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brajesh said:
Is the highest frequency possible the inverse of Planck time?
No, as far as we know based on the best current theories (but we haven't done a lot of experiments at the Planck scale so it's possible that these theories break down at that scale and we haven't seen it).

You may want to take a look at this Insights article: https://www.physicsforums.com/insights/hand-wavy-discussion-planck-length/
 
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'Planck scale units' don't limit anything.
 

Thread 'Two equivalent statements of time reversal symmetric Hamiltonian'

Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?
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