Is the Inequality $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2≥1$ Always True?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers on the inequality $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2 \ge 1$ under the conditions that $x, y, z > 0$ and $x^2 + a^2 = y^2 + b^2 = z^2 + c^2 = 1$. Participants explore geometric interpretations and conditions for equality.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • Some participants propose a geometric approach involving points $P, Q, R$ on the unit circle to demonstrate that the inequality holds.
  • Others argue that the obtuse angle at point $Q$ implies certain distances related to the circumcentre and orthocentre, leading to the conclusion that $(a+b+c)^2 + (x+y+z)^2 > 1$.
  • A later reply suggests that equality can only occur in a limiting case where $P$ and $Q$ are on the $x$-axis, but this is not possible under the given conditions of positivity for $x, y, z$.
  • Some participants emphasize that the conclusion can be strengthened to $(a+b+c)^2 + (x+y+z)^2 > 1$ due to the restrictions on $x, y, z$.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the validity of the inequality under the specified conditions, but there is contention regarding the conditions for equality and the implications of the geometric interpretations. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the strength of the inequality and the conditions under which equality might hold.

Contextual Notes

The discussion relies on geometric interpretations that depend on the specific configuration of points and the properties of triangles formed by these points. The assumptions about the positivity of $x, y, z$ are crucial to the arguments presented.

anemone
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Let $x,\,y,\,z>0$ and $a,\,b,\,c$ be real numbers such that $x^2+a^2=y^2+b^2=z^2+c^2=1$.

Prove that $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2\ge 1$.
 
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anemone said:
Let $x,\,y,\,z>0$ and $a,\,b,\,c$ be real numbers such that $x^2+a^2=y^2+b^2=z^2+c^2=1$.

Prove that $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2\ge 1$.
[sp]Here is a geometric approach to the problem.
[TIKZ]\clip (-6,-1) rectangle (12,12) ;
\draw [thin] (-6,0) -- (6,0) ;
\draw [thin] (0,-1) -- (0,10) ;
\coordinate [label=above left:{$P$}] (P) at (-4,3) ;
\coordinate [label=above right:{$Q$}] (Q) at (1.92,4.62) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$R$}] (R) at (4.42,2.35) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (P) -- (3.17,3.5) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (Q) -- (0.21,2.675) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (R) -- (-1.04,3.81) ;
\coordinate [label=below:{$C$}] (C) at (0,0) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$G$}] (G) at (0.78,3.33) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$H$}] (H) at (2.34,10) ;
\coordinate [label=below:{$N$}] (N) at (1.75,2.55) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (H) -- (N) ;
\draw [red] (C) --(G) -- (H) ;
\foreach \point in {C,G,H}
\fill (\point) circle(2pt) ;
\draw (0,0) circle (5cm) ;
\draw (P) -- (Q) -- (R) -- cycle ;
[/TIKZ]​
Let $P = (a,x)$, $Q = (b,y)$ and $R = (c,z)$. The given conditions imply that $P,Q,R$ all lie on the upper half of the unit circle. Relabelling the points if necessary, we may assume that $Q$ lies on the arc between $P$ and $R$. Notice that the angle $PQR$ is obtuse.

The origin $C$ is the circumcentre of the triangle $PQR$. Let $G = \bigl(\frac13(a+b+c),\frac13(x+y+z)\bigr)$ be the centroid of the triangle, and let $H$ be the orthocentre (where the three perpendiculars from the vertices to the opposite sides meet). In particular, let $N$ be the point where the perpendicular from $Q$ meets the side $PR$. The fact that the angle at $Q$ is obtuse means that $N$ lies inside the unit circle on the segment $PR$, and $H$ lies outside the circle, on the opposite side of $Q$ from $N$. Therefore the distance $|CH|$ is greater than $1$.

The theory of the Euler line tells us that the points $C,G,H$ are collinear and that $|GH| = 2|CG|$, so that $|CH| = 3|CG|$. Since $G = \bigl(\frac13(a+b+c),\frac13(x+y+z)\bigr)$, it follows that $H = \bigl((a+b+c),(x+y+z)\bigr)$. But then the fact that $|CH| >1$ tells us that $(a+b+c)^2 + (x+y+z)^2 > 1.$[/sp]
 
Opalg said:
[sp]Here is a geometric approach to the problem.
[TIKZ]\clip (-6,-1) rectangle (12,12) ;
\draw [thin] (-6,0) -- (6,0) ;
\draw [thin] (0,-1) -- (0,10) ;
\coordinate [label=above left:{$P$}] (P) at (-4,3) ;
\coordinate [label=above right:{$Q$}] (Q) at (1.92,4.62) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$R$}] (R) at (4.42,2.35) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (P) -- (3.17,3.5) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (Q) -- (0.21,2.675) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (R) -- (-1.04,3.81) ;
\coordinate [label=below:{$C$}] (C) at (0,0) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$G$}] (G) at (0.78,3.33) ;
\coordinate [label=right:{$H$}] (H) at (2.34,10) ;
\coordinate [label=below:{$N$}] (N) at (1.75,2.55) ;
\draw [thin,gray] (H) -- (N) ;
\draw [red] (C) --(G) -- (H) ;
\foreach \point in {C,G,H}
\fill (\point) circle(2pt) ;
\draw (0,0) circle (5cm) ;
\draw (P) -- (Q) -- (R) -- cycle ;
[/TIKZ]​
Let $P = (a,x)$, $Q = (b,y)$ and $R = (c,z)$. The given conditions imply that $P,Q,R$ all lie on the upper half of the unit circle. Relabelling the points if necessary, we may assume that $Q$ lies on the arc between $P$ and $R$. Notice that the angle $PQR$ is obtuse.

The origin $C$ is the circumcentre of the triangle $PQR$. Let $G = \bigl(\frac13(a+b+c),\frac13(x+y+z)\bigr)$ be the centroid of the triangle, and let $H$ be the orthocentre (where the three perpendiculars from the vertices to the opposite sides meet). In particular, let $N$ be the point where the perpendicular from $Q$ meets the side $PR$. The fact that the angle at $Q$ is obtuse means that $N$ lies inside the unit circle on the segment $PR$, and $H$ lies outside the circle, on the opposite side of $Q$ from $N$. Therefore the distance $|CH|$ is greater than $1$.

The theory of the Euler line tells us that the points $C,G,H$ are collinear and that $|GH| = 2|CG|$, so that $|CH| = 3|CG|$. Since $G = \bigl(\frac13(a+b+c),\frac13(x+y+z)\bigr)$, it follows that $H = \bigl((a+b+c),(x+y+z)\bigr)$. But then the fact that $|CH| >1$ tells us that $(a+b+c)^2 + (x+y+z)^2 > 1.$[/sp]
but how can it be: $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2=1\,\, ?$
for the question :$(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2\geq1 $
when will the equality happen ?
 
Last edited:
Since $x^2+a^2=1,$ therefore, $0<x\le1 $ and $|a|<1$ by the given conditions($x,y,z,a,b,c\in\mathbb{R}$). Similarly, $0<y,z\le1$ and $|b|,|c|<1$. Now, $$(x+y+z)^2+(a+b+c)^2=3+2(xy+yz+zx)+2(ab+bc+ca)\ge3+2(ab+bc+ca)$$ because of the positivity of $x,y,z$. Now, atleast one of $ab,bc$ or $ca$ must be positive and the minimum value of the sum of other two approaches $-2$. Note that when the negative products approach $-2$, the positive product approaches $1$.Therefore, $(x+y+z)^2+(a+b+c)^2\gt3+2(1)-2(2)=1$.
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Albert said:
but how can it be: $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2=1\,\, ?$
for the question :$(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2\geq1 $
when will the equality happen ?
[sp]Equality can only happen in the limiting case where (in the diagram in my previous comment) $P$ and $Q$ are on the $x$-axis at the points $\pm1$. But the question stipulates that $x$, $y$ and $z$ are strictly positive. That implies that the limiting case cannot occur, and so the conclusion can be strengthened to $(a+b+c)^2+(x+y+z)^2 > 1 $.[/sp]
 

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