- #1
MarkovMarakov
- 33
- 1
Does the following argument correct?
Suppose there is a particle $p$ that can either decay into $ \{$a spin-1 and a spin-0 particle$\}$ or two spin-0 particles, then the lowest possible spin of $p$ is 2. This is because we need the spin to be even and large enough to accommodate the spin-1 product.
(Assuming that the total ang momentum is conserved in the decay.)
Thank you in advance!
Suppose there is a particle $p$ that can either decay into $ \{$a spin-1 and a spin-0 particle$\}$ or two spin-0 particles, then the lowest possible spin of $p$ is 2. This is because we need the spin to be even and large enough to accommodate the spin-1 product.
(Assuming that the total ang momentum is conserved in the decay.)
Thank you in advance!