Is the Poisson Sum Formula Equivalent to the Integral of a Function?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the Poisson sum formula, specifically its representation as an infinite sum and its relationship to the integral of a function. The formula is expressed as ∑_{n=-∞}^{∞}f(n)= ∫_{-∞}^{∞}dx f(x) ω(x), where ω(x) = ∑_{n=-∞}^{∞}e^{2i π nx}. A key question raised is whether ∑_{n=-∞}^{∞} (f(n)/ω(n)) = ∫_{-∞}^{∞} dx f(x) holds true, prompting a critical examination of the convergence of the infinite sum ω(x) and its implications.

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lokofer
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If we have (Poisson sum formula) in the form:

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}f(n)= \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx f(x) \omega (x)

with \omega (x) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{2i \pi nx}

Then my question is if we would have that:

\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{ f(n)}{ \omega (n)} = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx f(x) ??
 
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You should stop and ask if:

\omega (x) = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}e^{2i \pi nx}

makes any sense at all. You have an infinite sum and the terms aren't tending to zero.
 

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