Is the Proof in Dummit and Foote's Chinese Remainder Theorem Inductive?

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The discussion centers on the proof of the Chinese Remainder Theorem as presented in Dummit and Foote, specifically on pages 265-266. Participants question the validity of the induction method used in the proof, noting that the induction hypothesis appears absent. The consensus suggests that proving the theorem for k=2 and then reducing cases for k>2 to k=2 may not constitute a proper induction process. Clarification is sought on whether this approach qualifies as induction.

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In Dummit and Foote on pages 265-266, a proof is given of the Chinese Remainder Theorem. They claim to proceed by induction, but I cannot see where the induction hypothesis is used.

It seems that they could proved the statement for k=2, and then reduced the statement for k>2 to k=2. Is this induction?

Thank you for your help.
 
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icantadd said:
In Dummit and Foote on pages 265-266, a proof is given of the Chinese Remainder Theorem. They claim to proceed by induction, but I cannot see where the induction hypothesis is used.

It seems that they could proved the statement for k=2, and then reduced the statement for k>2 to k=2. Is this induction?

Thank you for your help.

I don't have a definite answer, but my feeling is that if your proof for values of n greater than 2 is base upon a showing that it is dependent upon the validity of the case for n = 2 then it is a form of induction.
 

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