MHB Is the series $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}$ convergent?

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The series $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}$ is analyzed for convergence using the divergence test and the integral test. The limit of the terms approaches zero, making the divergence test inconclusive. However, applying the integral test shows that the integral converges, indicating that the series converges as well. A limit comparison test with the known convergent series $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{4k^2}$ confirms this result. Thus, the series converges.
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$\tiny{206.f3a.}$
$\textsf{Use the divergence Test to detemine whether the series is divergent}$
\begin{align}
\displaystyle
&\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\\
\textit{take limit}\\
=&\lim_{{k}\to{\infty}}\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\\
\\
=&\frac{\arctan(\infty)}{\infty} =\frac{\pi/2}{\infty}=0\\
\therefore inconclusive
\end{align}
$\textsf{Use the Integral Test to detemine whether the series is divergent. positive and continuous terms}$
\begin{align}
\displaystyle
f(k)&=\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\\
f'(k)&=\frac{2-\arctan(2k)8k}{(1+4k)^2}\\
\textit{as } {{k}\to{\infty}} \, f(k) \textit{ decreases}\\
\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\,dk&
=\lim_{{k}\to{\infty}}\int_{1}^{b} \frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\,dk\\
&u=\arctan(2k) \therefore du=\frac{2}{1+4k^2}\\
\frac{1}{2}\int u \, du&=\frac{u^2}{4}\\
&=\lim_{{b}\to{\infty}}\frac{1}{4}
\left[(\arctan(2b))^2)-((\arctan(2))^2 )\right] \\
&=\frac{1}{4}\left[\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)^2
-(\arctan(2))^2\right] \\
\textit{finite values }\\
&\therefore
\int_{1}^{\infty} \frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}\,dk
\textit{ converges }\\
&\therefore
\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{\arctan(2k)}{1+4k^2}
\textit{ converges }
\end{align}
$\textit{ just seeing where errors are and sugestions? }$
☕
 
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I would use a limit comparison test. We know:

$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{4k^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{24}$$

Thus we check:

$$\lim_{k\to\infty}\left(\frac{\arctan(2k)}{4k^2+1}\cdot\frac{4k^2}{1}\right)=\frac{\pi}{2}$$

Since the limit is a finite number, we know the original series converges.
 
MarkFL said:
I would use a limit comparison test. We know:

$$\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{4k^2}=\frac{\pi^2}{24}$$
where does
$\displaystyle

\frac{1}{4k^2}$
come from?
 
karush said:
where does
$\displaystyle

\frac{1}{4k^2}$
come from?

It is the $k$th term of a known convergent series. When we take the $k$th term of the given series and divide by this one, we get an expression for whom the limit at infinity goes to a finite value, thereby showing the given series converges.
 
really appreciate the help
going to spend the rest of the month
doing d/c problems
:cool:
 
Last edited:

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