Is the Taylor Series Method Valid for Proving the Irrationality of ln(π)?

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The discussion centers on the validity of using the Taylor series method to prove the irrationality of ln(π). It establishes that the Taylor series expansion for y=π^x at x=1 results in π expressed as an infinite series involving ln(π). The conclusion drawn is that since π is irrational, ln(π) must also be irrational; however, the argument is challenged by the fact that irrational numbers can be represented as limits of rational sequences, as demonstrated by the irrationality of e. This highlights the complexity of proving irrationality through series expansions.

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If we set out to prove the irrationality of the natural logarithm of π (pie), by writing out the Taylor series centered at zero for the function y=π^x, with x=1, we have:

π=1+Sum(ln^k(π)/k!) from k=1 to infinity.

Since we know π is irrational, then ln(π) must be irrational or otherwise π=(a+b)/b

For integer a and b, why is this not correct?
 
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Aspiring said:
If we set out to prove the irrationality of the natural logarithm of π (pie), by writing out the Taylor series centered at zero for the function y=π^x, with x=1, we have:

π=1+Sum(ln^k(π)/k!) from k=1 to infinity.

Since we know π is irrational, then ln(π) must be irrational or otherwise π=(a+b)/b

For integer a and b, why is this not correct?


Because any real number is the limit of a rational sequence, and series play this game, too. For example, we know the number \,e\, is irrational, yet

$$e=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{k!}$$

so, according to your idea, we'd get that \,1\, is irrational...

DonAntonio
 
Aw of course, i see now, thanks.
 

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