Is There a Flaw in the Symmetry Proof for Homology Classes?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the symmetry proof for homology classes, specifically addressing the definitions and implications of symmetry and transitivity in the context of paths connecting points in a two-dimensional space. Participants explore the mathematical definitions and their applications, particularly focusing on the symmetry aspect.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Homework-related

Main Points Raised

  • One participant references a source that defines symmetry and transitivity for homology classes, questioning the validity of the symmetry part when applying the definitions to specific points and paths.
  • Another participant suggests that the path should be defined as a function into \(\mathbb{R}^2\), proposing that \(q(t)=(t,t)\) and \(p(t)=(1-t,1-t)\) would correctly represent the paths between points A and B.
  • A later reply indicates an understanding of the parametrization of the paths, noting that plugging in the endpoints into the functions yields the correct points, thus clarifying the earlier confusion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express uncertainty regarding the initial interpretation of the symmetry proof, but there is a progression towards understanding the parametrization of the paths. No consensus is reached on the initial confusion, but clarification is achieved in later posts.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of correctly defining paths in \(\mathbb{R}^2\) and the implications of parametrization in understanding symmetry in homology classes. Some assumptions about the definitions and their applications remain unresolved.

BiGyElLoWhAt
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The source I'm using is:
http://inperc.com/wiki/index.php?title=Homology_classes
And they say
Symmetry: A∼B⇒B∼A . If path q connects A to B then p connects B to A ; just pick p(t)=q(1−t),∀t .
Transitivity: A∼B , B∼C⇒A∼C . If path q connects A to B and path p connects B to C then there is a path r that connects A to C ; just pick:
##r(t)= \left [ \begin{array}{c}
q(2t) & \text{for} & t∈[0,1/2],\\
p(2t−1) & \text{for} & t∈[1/2,1] \\
\end{array} \right ] ##

and the problem I'm having is with the symmetry part.
Using their function definition, p(t) = q(1-t) for all t:
Let the two points A, and B, in question be (0,0) and (1,1), respectively, connected by the path q(t) = t
Then the function p(t)=q(1-t) should give me a line from (1,1) to (0,0) (B->A), but plugging it in gives me p(t) = q(1-t) = 1-t.
Neither point is on that line. I'm assuming I'm missing something, here, but I don't know what.

Thanks!

*I should add, that it makes sense to me, conceptually, but this example just doesn't seem to work for me, and I want to make sure I have a solid foundation before continuing.
 
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BiGyElLoWhAt said:
and the problem I'm having is with the symmetry part.
Using their function definition, p(t) = q(1-t) for all t:
Let the two points A, and B, in question be (0,0) and (1,1), respectively, connected by the path q(t) = t
Then the function p(t)=q(1-t) should give me a line from (1,1) to (0,0) (B->A), but plugging it in gives me p(t) = q(1-t) = 1-t.
Neither point is on that line. I'm assuming I'm missing something, here, but I don't know what.
Since you take two points in ##\mathbb R^2##, your path should also be a function into ##\mathbb R^2##.
So you have ##q(t)=(t,t)## and then ##p(t)=(1-t,1-t)##
 
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Oh, wait, I think I get it now.
So the function needs to be on t = [0,1] and [1,0] respectively, so when you plug in 0 and 1 in q(t)=t you get 0 and 1 out, so (0,0) and (1,1) and when you plug in [1,0] into p(t)=1-t you get 1-1 = 0 and 1-0 = 1.

Is this correct?
 
Ok, yea, for some reason I wasn't thinking parametrically D=
 

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