Is There a Root for cos(x) = x in the Interval (0,1)?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the existence of a root for the equation cos(x) = x within the interval (0,1). Participants explore the implications of the Intermediate Value Theorem and the continuity of the function involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant argues that the Intermediate Value Theorem does not guarantee a root in the interval (0,1) due to the values of cos(0) and cos(1), suggesting that the function is discontinuous at 0.
  • Another participant clarifies that reformulating the question to f(x) = cos(x) - x allows for the application of the Intermediate Value Theorem, indicating that since f(0) > 0 and f(1) < 0, there must be a point c in (0,1) where f(c) = 0.
  • Some participants express confusion about the terminology used, suggesting that "solution" might be a clearer term than "root" in this context.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the application of the Intermediate Value Theorem and the terminology used in the problem statement. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the initial claim about the existence of a root.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the need to consider the continuity of the function f(x) = cos(x) - x on the closed interval [0,1], which is relevant to the application of the Intermediate Value Theorem.

happysmiles36
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From the Intermediate Value Theorem, is it guaranteed that there is a root of the given equation in the given interval?

cos(x)=x, (0,1)

cos(0)= 1
cox(1)= 0.540...

So using intermediate value theorem, no.

and

x=0 can't be possible because 0 was excluded in the domain by the round bracket so 0<x<1. Therefore there can't be a root. In other words the domain makes it so the graph is discontinuous at 0 (f(0) does not exist) and if the graph/function doesn't at that point there cannot be a root there.

The answer is yes, but I am struggling to understand why and I am not sure if the books answer is wrong or if I'm wrong.

*I also don't know why cos(x) = x , because when x=1 they aren't equal and would only be true at 1 point in this domain (when x=~0.79).
 
Last edited:
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It's probably better to examine the equivalent question; Is there a solution to ##\cos x-x=0## on the interval ##(0,1)##?

The Intermediate Value Theorem says
If ##f## is continuous on ##[a,b]## and ##L## is strictly between ##f(a)## and ##f(b)##, then there is at least one point ##c## in ##(a,b)## satisfying ##f(c)=L##.

If we put ##f(x)=\cos x-x##, your (revised) question is asking whether there is ##c## in ##(0,1)## satisfying ##f(c)=0##, right?

Given that ##f(0)=\cos 0-0=1>0## and ##f(1)=\cos 1-1<0## (you should check that), do you see how the IVT guarantees a ##c## in ##(0,1)## with ##f(c)=0##? Do you see how this is the same as saying ##\cos c=c##?

Note that you also need to say something regarding the continuity of ##f(x)=\cos x-x## on the closed interval ##[0,1]##.
 
Oh ok, that makes sense, I thought the question was asking me to do something else.

gopher_p said:
For what it's worth, I'm not a big fan of the use of the word "root" in the problem statement. It'd probably be better to use the word "solution" in that context.

Yeah, that would have made it much clearer imo.
 
Last edited:
For what it's worth, I'm not a big fan of the use of the word "root" in the problem statement. It'd probably be better to use the word "solution" in that context.
 

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