Is Tonelli's Theorem a Useful Tool for Determining the Existence of Integrals?

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Tonelli's Theorem is discussed as a method for determining the integrability of the function given by (x-y)/(x+y)^2 with respect to the 2D Lebesgue measure. The discussion emphasizes that since the function is non-negative, Tonelli's Theorem can be applied to evaluate the integral by splitting the function into simpler components. Participants confirm that the integral converges and is finite, leading to the conclusion that the function is integrable. The integrand is defined almost everywhere in the specified domain, and the final result indicates that the integral exists.
HeinzBor
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Homework Statement
Seeing if a funkcion is integrable
Relevant Equations
Fubinis theorem and Tonelli's theorem
Hi I am sitting with a homework problem which is to show if I can actually integrate a function. with 2D measure of lebesgue. the function is given by ##\frac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda^2 (x,y)##.

I know that a function ##f## is integrable if ##f \in L^{1}(\mu) \iff \int |f|^{1} d \mu < \infty##.

Since ##(f \geq 0)## I can apply Tonelli's Theorem, which states that

##\int_{X \times E} f d_{\mu \times v} = \int_{X}(\int_{Y}fdv)d \mu = \int_{Y}(\int_{X}fd \mu)d v##

So my first idea was to compute both RHS and LHS and show that they do not equal if they are not measurable. But I saw that this was a complicated integral, so I was wondering if there is some other way to do it?
 
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It is not so complicated if you split it: ##\dfrac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} = \dfrac{x}{(x+y)^2} - \dfrac{y}{(x+y)^2}##.
 
fresh_42 said:
It is not so complicated if you split it: ##\dfrac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} = \dfrac{x}{(x+y)^2} - \dfrac{y}{(x+y)^2}##.

Thanks and then integrate both sides of tonelli's theorem ? and if they are not equal then it is not integrable because of fubini?
 
From your deleted post:
HeinzBor said:
$\int_{[0,1] Y} \frac{x}{(x+y)^2}dv(y) - \int_{[0,1] X} \frac{y}{(x+y)^2}d \mu (x)$
For MathJax on this site, the delimiters are a pair of dollar signs ($) for standalone formulas) or a pair of hash signs (#) for inline formulas).
Using the latter, the integral above is ##\int_{[0,1] Y} \frac{x}{(x+y)^2}dv(y) - \int_{[0,1] X} \frac{y}{(x+y)^2}d \mu (x)## - that's with two # characters at the start and two more at the end.
 
fresh_42 said:
It is not so complicated if you split it: ##\dfrac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} = \dfrac{x}{(x+y)^2} - \dfrac{y}{(x+y)^2}##.
Another possibility is ##\dfrac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} = \dfrac{x + y}{(x+y)^2} - \dfrac{2y}{(x+y)^2}##.
Also, from post #1, a minor point:
HeinzBor said:
the function is given by ##\frac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda^2 (x,y)##.
The integrand is just this part: ##\frac{x - y}{(x + y)^2}##.
 
Okay thank you

Okay so I gave it a try\begin{align*}

\int_{[0,1] \times [0,1]} \frac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda^2 (x,y)

\end{align*}

Since $$f \geq 0$$ from Tonelli we have that

\begin{align*}

\int_{[0,1]} (\int_{[0,1]} \frac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda(x)) \ d \lambda (y)\\

= \int_{[0,1]} (\int_{[0,1]} \frac{x+y}{(x+y)^2} - \frac{2y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda(x)) \ d \lambda (y)

\end{align*}

and since $$\frac{2y}{(x+y)^2}$$ is maximum 2 we can just see it as a finite constant and then consider

\begin{align*}

&\leq \int_{[0,1]} (\int_{[0,1]} \frac{x-y}{(x+y)^2} d \lambda(x)) d \lambda (y)\\

&= \int_{[0,1]} \frac{1}{2}ln((y+1)^2) - \frac{1}{2}ln(y^2) d \lambda (y)\\

&= 2ln(2) < + \infty

\end{align*}

so f is integrable. is this correct? I hope you can help me if there's some mistakes I am still trying to learn more about the integral and measure
 
Last edited:
HeinzBor said:
Since $f \geq 0$ from Tonelli we have that
HeinzBor said:
and since $\frac{2y}{(x+y)^2}$ is maximum 2
Again, single $ delimiters don't do anything at this site.
Please use either ## or $$ delimiters on your LaTeX stuff.
 
Mark44 said:
Again, single $ delimiters don't do anything at this site.
Please use either ## or $$ delimiters on your LaTeX stuff.
Sorry it should be fixed now
 
Your result looks fine to me. The integrand function is defined everywhere except at (0, 0) on the square ##[0, 1] \times [0, 1]##, so the result via Lebesque integration should be the same as with ordinary (Riemann) integration. By wolframalpha, I get a value of 0 for the integral for either order of integration.
 
  • #10
Mark44 said:
Your result looks fine to me. The integrand function is defined everywhere except at (0, 0) on the square ##[0, 1] \times [0, 1]##, so the result via Lebesque integration should be the same as with ordinary (Riemann) integration. By wolframalpha, I get a value of 0 for the integral for either order of integration.

okay thanks, so I can conclude that the integral exists?
 
  • #11
HeinzBor said:
okay thanks, so I can conclude that the integral exists?
Yes
 

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