Kinetic & Potential Energy of 0° Ice/Water: Examined

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the kinetic and potential energy changes when ice at 0°C is heated to become water at the same temperature. It is established that while the potential energy of the molecules increases during this phase change, the kinetic energy remains constant according to the equation K = 3/2 k T, which is applicable only to ideal gases. The participants clarify that this equation does not apply to liquids or solids, indicating that liquid particles possess greater kinetic energy than solid particles at the same temperature due to their ability to move more freely.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of kinetic and potential energy concepts
  • Familiarity with the phase transition of water (ice to liquid)
  • Knowledge of thermodynamic principles, specifically K = 3/2 k T
  • Basic understanding of molecular behavior in solids and liquids
NEXT STEPS
  • Research the latent heat of melting and its implications on energy changes
  • Study molecular dynamics in solids versus liquids
  • Explore the differences in kinetic energy between states of matter
  • Investigate the limitations of the ideal gas law in non-gaseous states
USEFUL FOR

Students and educators in physics, chemists studying phase transitions, and anyone interested in thermodynamics and molecular behavior in different states of matter.

titansarus
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Hi.
In all of my question, I mean degrees celsius when I say degree.
Think we have a 0 degree ice. we give some energy to it (by a heater) and all of it get into a 0 degree water.
How does the kinetic and potential energy of the molecules change?

In the book in which I saw this question, it said that potential energy increases and kinetic energy of molecules doesn't change because of K= 3/2 k T. My problem is that we use K = 3/2 k T in ideal gases. is it valid for liquids or solids? Is it right to say that the mean kinetic energy of a solid and a liquid (of the same material and the same mass) is constant in temperature Θ? It doesn't seem logical. If it is true, how the water is more fluid and free than a solid?

Whatever the answer is, is it same for liquid and gas?

Sorry for my English.
 
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Hello titan, :welcome:

titansarus said:
we use K = 3/2 k T in ideal gases
meaning gases of infinitely small hard spheres that stilll can collide (I realize this is contradictory). So not for liquids and not for solids.
 
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BvU said:
Hello titan, :welcome:

meaning gases of infinitely small hard spheres that stilll can collide (I realize this is contradictory). So not for liquids and not for solids.
So, This means that if we have a liquid and a solid of the same temperature, we can't say their molecules (or particles) have the same kinetic energy. and the liquid particles has more kinetic energy than the solid of the same temperature, Is this right?
 
Good question. The constituents (ions, atoms, molecules) of a solid can't wander about, but they can vibrate about an average position. The energies associated with those degrees of freedom are generally less than the energy these constituents have when in the liquid state -- hence the latent heat of melting.

Perhaps you notice I'm treading carefully here -- some expert input would be welcome
 
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