I Left Invariant Metric: What I Don't Understand

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The discussion revolves around understanding the semi-direct product R_+ ⋉ R^4 as a matrix group represented by specific matrices and whether group multiplication corresponds to matrix multiplication. There is a query about how the metric acts on matrices within this group, particularly in relation to the concept of left invariance. The poster suggests that the left invariant metric implies that the inner product remains unchanged under left multiplication by any group element. Additionally, there is a comparison made to the Poincaré group, noting that this structure allows for translations and a single dilatation, simplifying operations compared to the full Lorentz group. The conversation emphasizes the need for theoretical understanding alongside practical examples.
ergospherical
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I haven't learned about Lie Groups yet, but came across this question.

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What I don't understand:
- is the semi-direct product ##R_+ \ltimes R^4## here a matrix group with elements ##\begin{pmatrix} \lambda & x^{\mu} \\ 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}##? And is the group multiplication then matrix multiplication?
- I guessed that because ##R_+ \ltimes R^4 \sim R^5## that the metric acts on matrices ##g_1, g_2## in the group as it would acting on two vectors in ##R^5##, but what does it mean that the metric is left invariant? Is it that for an arbitrary matrix ##g_3## in the group that ##\langle g_1, g_2 \rangle = \langle g_3 g_1, g_3 g_2 \rangle##?

(Not sure if any of that's right and maybe it'd be better to actually learn the theory first, but sometimes a practical example can't hurt?)
 
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At first glance, I think this is the subgroup of the Poincaré group with all 4 translations, but only one dilatation (multiplication with ##M_{\mu\nu}=\lambda ##) as opposed to the entire Lorentz group. You could basically do all the things you do with the Poincaré group, but with far fewer multiplications, since the entire Lorentz subgroup is reduced to ##\mathbb{R}_+.##
 
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Moderator's note: Spin-off from another thread due to topic change. In the second link referenced, there is a claim about a physical interpretation of frame field. Consider a family of observers whose worldlines fill a region of spacetime. Each of them carries a clock and a set of mutually orthogonal rulers. Each observer points in the (timelike) direction defined by its worldline's tangent at any given event along it. What about the rulers each of them carries ? My interpretation: each...

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