- #1
psholtz
- 136
- 0
Suppose we have a linear transformation/matrix A, which has multiple left inverses B1, B2, etc., such that, e,g,:
[tex]B_1 \cdot A = I[/tex]
Can we conclude from this (i.e., from the fact that A has multiple left inverses) that A has no right inverse?
If so, why is this?
[tex]B_1 \cdot A = I[/tex]
Can we conclude from this (i.e., from the fact that A has multiple left inverses) that A has no right inverse?
If so, why is this?