Legendre polynomial integration

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The discussion centers on the integral of the product of a power function and Legendre polynomials, specifically the integral of x^m*P_n(x) from -1 to 1, given that m<n. Participants highlight the orthogonality property of Legendre polynomials as a key tool for solving the problem, noting that x^m can be expressed as a linear combination of lower-order Legendre polynomials. Suggestions include using mathematical induction and integration by parts, although some find integration by parts challenging. The consensus is that the orthogonality property allows for the integral to evaluate to zero under the given conditions. Overall, leveraging the properties of Legendre polynomials is essential for solving the integration problem.
neelakash
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Homework Statement



int x^m*P_n(x) dx=0 where integration is from (-1) to (+1).Given m<n

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I took integrand F(x) and saw that F(-x)=(-1)^(m+n)*F(x)
should that help anyway?
 
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neelakash said:

Homework Statement



int x^m*P_n(x) dx=0 where integration is from (-1) to (+1).Given m<n

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



I took integrand F(x) and saw that F(-x)=(-1)^(m+n)*F(x)
should that help anyway?

um...the integration is from -1 to 1, so first thing come to my mind is to make good use of the orthogonality property of Legendre polynomials.
then...may be you can try Mathematical Induction for both odd and even polynomails with leading terms x^m , m< n

you may have a look on
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Legendre_polynomial

it may not be a fast and smart method..
but i think it may works

can anyone think of any better way??:smile:
 
Regarding the orthogonality,it appears that x^m needs to be equal to some P_m(x).It would be too much particular case.Isn't it?

Boas suggests to go for integration by parts.But it is so much horrible that I am stuck after 1st step.Can anyone please help?
 
OK,you were correct.Because,
the Legendre polynomials are complete on [-1,1], so:

x^m=a linear combination of P_0,P_1,P_2,...P_m
where m<n

Hence the result follow directly from orthogonality.
 
neelakash said:
OK,you were correct.Because,
the Legendre polynomials are complete on [-1,1], so:

x^m=a linear combination of P_0,P_1,P_2,...P_m
where m<n

Hence the result follow directly from orthogonality.

Yes.
you got the point.
just rewrite x^m in terms of Pn(x) and you may neglect those constants
in this case.
 
No need to neglect the constants.They simply go outside the integrals.
 
There is a question where you should find a formula for P-n(0) using the Legendre polynomials:
P-n(x)=1/(2^n*n!) d^n/dx^n(x^2-1)^n , n=0,1,2,3...

I tried to derive seven times by only substituting the n until n=7,I did that because i wanted to find something that i can build my formula but i could not.
anyone can help?
 

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