Leibniz criterion and Maclaurin approximations

  • Thread starter Thread starter estro
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Leibniz Maclaurin
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on calculating the integral function f(x) = ∫0x (1 - cos(t))/t dt at x=1 with an accuracy of 10-3. The Leibniz criterion confirms the convergence of the series used in the calculation. Participants suggest using the Maclaurin series for 1 - cos(t), dividing by t, and integrating the resulting series to achieve the desired precision. The error in truncating the series can be determined using the first unused term of the alternating series.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of Maclaurin series expansion
  • Familiarity with the Leibniz criterion for series convergence
  • Basic knowledge of integration techniques
  • Ability to analyze alternating series for error estimation
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the derivation and application of the Maclaurin series for trigonometric functions
  • Learn about the Leibniz criterion and its implications for series convergence
  • Explore techniques for integrating series and handling remainder terms
  • Investigate methods for estimating errors in alternating series
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students studying calculus, and anyone interested in numerical methods for approximating integrals and series convergence.

estro
Messages
239
Reaction score
0
I'm trying to calculate the following function (at x=1) with accuracy of 10^(-3).

f(x)= \int^x_{0} \frac{1-cost}{t}

What I've tried:
f(1)=f(0)+f'(c)=1-\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nc^{2k}}{(2k)!}
But now I don't know how to calculate this expression. [I know that this series is convergent thanks to Leibniz criterion]

Have I done something wrong?
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
estro said:
I'm trying to calculate the following function (at x=1) with accuracy of 10^(-3).

f(x)= \int^x_{0} \frac{1-cost}{t}

What I've tried:
f(1)=f(0)+f'(c)=1-\sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^nc^{2k}}{(2k)!}
But now I don't know how to calculate this expression. [I know that this series is convergent thanks to Leibniz criterion]

Have I done something wrong?
I think what you need to do is
1. Write the Maclaurin series for 1 - cos(t).
2. Divide each term in the Maclaurin series by t.
3. Integrate, and evaluate the resulting series at 1 and at 0.
4. Use as many terms as needed to get the desired precision.
 
g(x)=1-cosx
g'(x)=sinx
g''(x)=cosx
g^{(3)}(x)=-sinx
g^{(4)}(x)=-cosx
g^{(5)}(x)=sinx
g^{(6)}(x)=cosx
g^{(7)}(x)=-sinx

|R_6(t)| = |\frac {f^{(7)}(c)t^7} {7!}| \leq 10^{-3}

<br /> f(1)=\int_0^{1} \frac {g(0)+g&#039;(0)x+ \frac {g&#039;&#039;(0)t^2} {2!t} + \frac {g^{(3)}(0)t^3} {3!t} + \frac {g^{(4)}(0)t^4} {4!t} + \frac {g^{(5)}(0)t^5} {5!t} + {g^{(6)}(0)t^6} {6!t}} {t}= \int_0^{1} 0+0+\frac {t} {2} - \frac {t^3} {24} + \frac {t^5}{720} +\frac {R_6(t)} {t}

But how can I integrate the Reminder without corrupting my approximation, and even if I will integrate also the reminder how can I know that if f(x)=g(x)+c then also \int_a^{b} f(x) = c(b-a)+\int_a^{b} g(x).
 
Last edited:
Go back to what I said in post #2.
1. Write the Maclaurin series for 1 - cos(t).
2. Divide each term in the Maclaurin series by t.
3. Integrate, and evaluate the resulting series at 1 and at 0.
4. Use as many terms as needed to get the desired precision.
The Maclaurin series for 1 - cos(t) is 1 - {1 - t2/2! + t4/4! - t6/6! +- (some more terms) ...}

The result from step 3 will still be a series, and will be an alternating series. There is a simple way to determine the error in truncating an alternating series that pertains to the first unused term.
 
Thanks, got it!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 48 ·
2
Replies
48
Views
6K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
1K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K