Lim x->0 (sin x / x) =1 contradiction?

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khurram usman
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lim x->0 (sin x / x) =1...contradiction?

sin(x)/x =1 (limit x to 0)
this is an identity proved by using geometry and squeeze theorem ...right?

now today i came across another question and doing it my way ...gives me two answers;)
the question is limit x-->0 of [ x*sin(1/x)]

my first approach was using the above identity by rewriting the question as follows:
sin(1/x)/(1/x)...it means the same thing and is now in the form so that we can use the identity...so limiting x->0 must give us 1 according to the identity

now i thought to use the squeeze theorem as shown below:
-1≤sin(1/x)≤1
-x≤x*sin(1/x)≤x
now x goes to 0 so:
0≤x*sin(1/x)≤0
so x*sin(1/x)=0 as x goes to 0

now which method which is correct ?
 
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disregardthat said:
sin(1/x)/(1/x) as x goes to 0 would be the same as sin(x)/x as x goes to infinity, not 0.


so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
 


khurram usman said:
so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
It's undefined, and all that that means is that you can't use l'Hôpital's rule here.

You can use the squeeze theorem on sin(x)/x as x→∞. sin(x) is bounded from above by +1, from below by -1. Given that, what does the squeeze theorem say about sin(x)/x as x→∞?
 


D H said:
It's undefined, and all that that means is that you can't use l'Hôpital's rule here.

You can use the squeeze theorem on sin(x)/x as x→∞. sin(x) is bounded from above by +1, from below by -1. Given that, what does the squeeze theorem say about sin(x)/x as x→∞?

ok ...got your point...its 0
thx a lot
 


khurram usman said:
so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
L'Hopital's rule doesn't apply, since |sin(x)| is bounded while the denominator x becomes infinite.