Lim x->0 (sin x / x) =1 contradiction?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of the function sin(x)/x as x approaches 0 and its application to the limit of x*sin(1/x) as x approaches 0. Participants explore different methods to evaluate these limits, including the squeeze theorem and L'Hôpital's rule, while questioning the validity of their approaches.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that lim x->0 (sin x / x) = 1 is an identity proven by geometry and the squeeze theorem.
  • Another participant challenges the application of the identity to the limit of x*sin(1/x), suggesting that sin(1/x)/(1/x) as x approaches 0 is analogous to sin(x)/x as x approaches infinity.
  • Some participants propose using L'Hôpital's rule to evaluate the limit, but question the behavior of cos(x) as x approaches infinity, noting it is undefined.
  • There is a discussion about the applicability of the squeeze theorem to sin(x)/x as x approaches infinity, with some participants agreeing that it leads to a limit of 0.
  • Another participant points out that L'Hôpital's rule cannot be applied since |sin(x)| is bounded while the denominator x becomes infinite.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the correct method to evaluate the limits, with no consensus reached on the validity of the approaches discussed. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the application of the identity and the use of L'Hôpital's rule.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight limitations in their reasoning, particularly regarding the assumptions made when applying L'Hôpital's rule and the conditions under which the squeeze theorem is valid.

khurram usman
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lim x->0 (sin x / x) =1...contradiction?

sin(x)/x =1 (limit x to 0)
this is an identity proved by using geometry and squeeze theorem ...right?

now today i came across another question and doing it my way ...gives me two answers;)
the question is limit x-->0 of [ x*sin(1/x)]

my first approach was using the above identity by rewriting the question as follows:
sin(1/x)/(1/x)...it means the same thing and is now in the form so that we can use the identity...so limiting x->0 must give us 1 according to the identity

now i thought to use the squeeze theorem as shown below:
-1≤sin(1/x)≤1
-x≤x*sin(1/x)≤x
now x goes to 0 so:
0≤x*sin(1/x)≤0
so x*sin(1/x)=0 as x goes to 0

now which method which is correct ?
 
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sin(1/x)/(1/x) as x goes to 0 would be the same as sin(x)/x as x goes to infinity, not 0.
 


disregardthat said:
sin(1/x)/(1/x) as x goes to 0 would be the same as sin(x)/x as x goes to infinity, not 0.


so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
 


khurram usman said:
so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
It's undefined, and all that that means is that you can't use l'Hôpital's rule here.

You can use the squeeze theorem on sin(x)/x as x→∞. sin(x) is bounded from above by +1, from below by -1. Given that, what does the squeeze theorem say about sin(x)/x as x→∞?
 


D H said:
It's undefined, and all that that means is that you can't use l'Hôpital's rule here.

You can use the squeeze theorem on sin(x)/x as x→∞. sin(x) is bounded from above by +1, from below by -1. Given that, what does the squeeze theorem say about sin(x)/x as x→∞?

ok ...got your point...its 0
thx a lot
 


khurram usman said:
so it will be of the form sin(x)/x
applying l'hospital's rule :
cos(x)/1
= cos(x)
as you said x goes to infinity so what will be cos(∞)?
L'Hopital's rule doesn't apply, since |sin(x)| is bounded while the denominator x becomes infinite.
 

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