Limit as a function, not a value

  • I
  • Thread starter bsaucer
  • Start date
  • #1
bsaucer
26
0
Is it possible for a limit of a range of functions to return a function?
Example: f(z)= limit (as p approaches 0) (xp-1)/p.
 

Answers and Replies

  • #2
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
Is it possible for a limit of a range of functions to return a function?
Example: f(z)= limit (as p approaches 0) (xp-1)/p.
Yes. You define ##f_p(x)=f(p,x)=\dfrac{x^p-1}{p}## and ask for ##\lim_{p \to 0}f(p,x)=\log x.##
 
  • #3
WWGD
Science Advisor
Gold Member
6,336
8,392
Just consider the sequence of fuctions ##f_n(x)= x/n ##. Or a Taylor Series.
 
  • #4
bsaucer
26
0
Assuming the parameter p is real, How do we arrive at the fact that the limit of the functions approaches the function Log x?
 
  • #5
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
Assuming the parameter p is real, How do we arrive at the fact that the limit of the functions approaches the function Log x?
With l'Hôspital's rule.

However, your question can only be answered if you first tell what the logarithm is for you and which tools are allowed in such a proof.
 
  • #6
pasmith
Homework Helper
2022 Award
2,593
1,196
With l'Hôspital's rule.

Setting [itex]f(p) = x^p[/itex] we have by definition of the derivative [tex]\lim_{p \to 0} \frac{x^p - 1}{p} = \lim_{p \to 0} \frac{f(p) - f(0)}{p} = f'(0)[/tex] whenever the limit exists. There is no need to invoke l'Hopital's rule in such a case; it won't work for the example [tex]
\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{g(x)}{x}[/tex] where [itex]g(x) = x^2 \sin (x^{-1})[/itex] for [itex]x \neq 0[/itex] with [itex]g(0) = 0[/itex], where [itex]g'(0) = 0[/itex] but [itex] \lim_{x \to 0} g'(x)[/itex] does not exist.
 
Last edited:
  • #7
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
I cited what Wikipedia said without checking, my bad. Here is the solution

\begin{align*}
\log x&=\int_1^x \dfrac{dt}{t}=\int_1^x\lim_{p\to 0}\dfrac{dt}{t^{1-p}}=\lim_{p\to 0} \int_1^x \dfrac{dt}{t^{1-p}}=\lim_{p\to 0} \left[\dfrac{t^p}{p}\right]_1^x=\lim_{p\to 0}\left(\dfrac{x^p}{p}-\dfrac{1}{p}\right)=\lim_{p\to 0}\dfrac{x^{p}-1}{p}
\end{align*}

Integral and limit can be exchanged because there exists an integrable majorant to ##f_n=t^{1-(1/n)}.##
 
  • #8
julian
Gold Member
752
240
Assuming the parameter p is real, How do we arrive at the fact that the limit of the functions approaches the function Log x?
\begin{align*}
\lim_{p \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{x^p - 1}{p} = \lim_{p \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{e^{p \log x} - 1}{p} = \log x .
\end{align*}
 
  • #9
WWGD
Science Advisor
Gold Member
6,336
8,392
\begin{align*}
\lim_{p \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{x^p - 1}{p} = \lim_{p \rightarrow 0} \dfrac{e^{p \log x} - 1}{p} = \log x .
\end{align*}
I don't see how the equality follows here.
 
  • #10
julian
Gold Member
752
240
I don't see how the equality follows here.
Just do ##e^{p \log x} = 1 + p \log x + \frac{1}{2!} (p \log x)^2 + \cdots##.
 
  • #11
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
Just do ##e^{p \log x} = 1 + p \log x + \frac{1}{2!} (p \log x)^2 + \cdots##.
... and add an argument why the limits can be exchanged:
$$
\lim_{p\to 0}\lim_{n\to \infty }\sum_{k=0}^n \dfrac{(p\log x)^k}{k!}=\lim_{n\to \infty }\sum_{k=0}^n \lim_{p\to 0}\dfrac{(p\log x)^k}{k!}
$$
 
  • #12
WWGD
Science Advisor
Gold Member
6,336
8,392
I cited what Wikipedia said without checking, my bad. Here is the solution

\begin{align*}
\log x&=\int_1^x \dfrac{dt}{t}=\int_1^x\lim_{p\to 0}\dfrac{dt}{t^{1-p}}=\lim_{p\to 0} \int_1^x \dfrac{dt}{t^{1-p}}=\lim_{p\to 0} \left[\dfrac{t^p}{p}\right]_1^x=\lim_{p\to 0}\left(\dfrac{x^p}{p}-\dfrac{1}{p}\right)=\lim_{p\to 0}\dfrac{x^{p}-1}{p}
\end{align*}

Integral and limit can be exchanged because there exists an integrable majorant to ##f_n=t^{1-(1/n)}.##
I remember that result on exchanging limits named after one of the major names. Was it Lagrange, or Euler? Someone else?
 
  • #13
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
I remember that result on exchanging limits named after one of the major names. Was it Lagrange, or Euler? Someone else?
I don't know. My source calls it the theorem of dominated convergence and uses Fatou's lemma to prove it.
 
  • #14
WWGD
Science Advisor
Gold Member
6,336
8,392
I don't know. My source calls it the theorem of dominated convergence and uses Fatou's lemma to prove it.
Ah, one of the Lebesgue convergence theorems; MCThm or DCT. Maybe I'm thinking of another result
 
  • #15
fresh_42
Mentor
Insights Author
2022 Award
17,826
19,064
Ah, one of the Lebesgue convergence theorems; MCThm or DCT. Maybe I'm thinking of another result
Lebesgue is correct. It applies to any measurable function. I have found a nice PowerPoint presentation that covers most exchangeability results: sums <> limits <> integrals including counterexamples. Unfortunately, the only English part is a quotation at the beginning:
Then I come along and try differentiating under the integral sign, and often it worked. So I got a great reputation for doing integrals, only because my box of tools was different from everybody else’s, and they had tried all their tools on it before giving the problem to me.
(Richard Feynman, 1918–1988, Surely You’re Joking, Mr. Feynman!)
... and the Chrome translation trick doesn't work on pdf.
http://scratchpost.dreamhosters.com/math/HM3-D-2x2.pdf
 

Suggested for: Limit as a function, not a value

  • Last Post
Replies
16
Views
543
  • Last Post
Replies
3
Views
465
Replies
1
Views
321
  • Last Post
Replies
29
Views
906
Replies
3
Views
388
Replies
3
Views
430
Replies
2
Views
705
  • Last Post
Replies
4
Views
582
  • Last Post
Replies
1
Views
473
  • Last Post
Replies
16
Views
830
Top