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Suppose
lim (when n -> oo) of sup {f(x) / x belongs to (0, 1/n) } = L_1, and
lim (when e -> 0+) of sup {f(x) / x belongs to (0, e) } = L_2.
(e is simply epsilon).
It seems pretty obvious, but it is truth that L_1 = L_2 ?
Thanks for your help.
lim (when n -> oo) of sup {f(x) / x belongs to (0, 1/n) } = L_1, and
lim (when e -> 0+) of sup {f(x) / x belongs to (0, e) } = L_2.
(e is simply epsilon).
It seems pretty obvious, but it is truth that L_1 = L_2 ?
Thanks for your help.