Limit of sin(x)/x: Converting to sin(1/x)

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SUMMARY

The limit of sin(x)/x as x approaches infinity is evaluated using the Squeeze Theorem. The discussion establishes that α = lim (x→∞) sin(1/x)/(1/x) is valid, leading to the conclusion that lim (x→∞) sin(x)/x equals 0. Additionally, the limit of cos(x)/x as x approaches infinity is also confirmed to be 0, indicating that the argument holds true when switching from sin(x) to cos(x).

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Homework Statement




Find the following Limit in terms of the number
\alpha=\lim_{x\rightarrow 0}\frac{sinx}{x}

(i)\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{sinx}{x}

The Attempt at a Solution



\alpha=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{sin(1/x)}{1/x}
But I don't know how to convert sin(x) to sin(1/x):confused:
[
 
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Hurkyl?
 
I'm not terribly sure how you got

\alpha=\lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{sin(1/x)}{1/x}

Note that you cannot simply divide through by x when dealing with trigonometric functions. In this case you'll want to use the Squeeze Theorem.

Note that |sin x| \leq 1

This implies that \left| \frac{sin x}{x} \right| \leq \frac{1}{x}

Now you can apply the Squeeze Theorem
 
But from sqeeze theorem we get 0.
 
azatkgz said:
But from sqeeze theorem we get 0.

Yeah, and what's the problem?
 
Ok ,then.
 
Can we in the similar manner say that \lim_{x\rightarrow\infty}\frac{cosx}{x}=0
 
Is there any point in the argument which doesn't hold as a result of switching sin(x) to cos(x)?
 

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