Convergence of Infinite Sums and Limits: A L'Hopital's Rule Perspective

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the limit of an infinite sum and the sum of the limits, specifically questioning if lim_{x \rightarrow a} \sum_{n=0}^\infty f(x,n) equals \sum_{n=0}^\infty lim_{x \rightarrow a}f(x,n). It is asserted that this equality holds true if and only if the series \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} f(x,n) converges uniformly. In cases where uniform convergence is not present, the equality does not generally hold. The application of L'Hopital's Rule is acknowledged as a helpful tool in this analysis. Overall, uniform convergence is crucial for the interchange of limits and sums.
Apteronotus
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For an infinite sum, is the limit of the sum = sum of the limit?
ie.
<br /> lim_{x \rightarrow a} \sum_{n=0}^\infty f(x,n)= \sum_{n=0}^\infty lim_{x \rightarrow a}f(x,n)<br />
 
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I'm fairly certain that it's true if and only if
<br /> \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} f(x,n)<br />

converges uniformly. In general, however, no.
 
Thank you L'Hopital!
 

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