Hello everyone,(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I am having trouble understanding the concept of a limit not existing for functions like sin (1/x) when x tends to 0. The good book says that the function "does not settle on any value as we get closer to x" implying some infinite oscillation. I am having trouble visualizing it and why it should happen with this particular function.

Any kind soul here willing to elaborate on this and help me understand this better? I would be extremely grateful.

Many thanks,

Luca

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Limits and infinite oscillations

Loading...

Similar Threads - Limits infinite oscillations | Date |
---|---|

I Malus' law in the limit of infinitely many polarizers | Sep 5, 2016 |

I So I flip 10 coins.. (re: limit of infinite? series) | Mar 14, 2016 |

Infinite series as the limit of its sequence of partial sums | Jan 24, 2016 |

Improper integral, infinite limits of integration | Mar 28, 2013 |

Confusion regarding a proof for an infinite limit property. | Mar 13, 2013 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**