MHB Linear approximation of Non linear system by Taylor series

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To linearize a nonlinear system using Taylor series, one can apply the concept of the tangent line at a specific point rather than relying solely on Taylor series. The example provided involves differentiating a function using the quotient rule to find the derivative, which is then used to create a linear approximation. The discussion also highlights a challenge in applying this method to a different equation, where additional terms appear in the linearized form. Clarification is sought on how to correctly derive the linearized equation from the given nonlinear equation. Understanding the differentiation process and ensuring the correct application of the linearization method is crucial for accurate results.
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I have a equation which represents a nonlinear system.I need to linearize it to obtain a linear system.I have studied various notes and asked my teachers but they are unable to explain how the solution has been obtained.I have the solution but I want to know how it has been done.Please could someone explain it to me.

Image file eqn1- The highlighted text shows the simple way of linearisation using Taylor series.

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Image file eqn2- The FIRST highlighted equation shows the equation to be linearized and the SECOND highlighted equation is the linearized form.

View attachment 2167

So,please help me to find the method by which eqn 5.6 has been obtained from eqn 5.5b.

Thanks.
 

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First point: to get a linear approximation, you don't really need to know about "Taylor series". You just need to know that tangent line to y= f(x), at \left(\overline{x}, f(\overline{x})\right) is given by y= f'(\overline{x})(x- \overline{x})+ f(\overline{x}).

In this particular case, y= f(x)= \frac{5.68x}{1+ 4.68x}, we can use the "quotient rule" to differentiate:
\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{5.68(1+ 4.68x)- 5.68x(4.68)}{(1+ 4.68x)^2}

The two "5.68(4.68x)" terms in the numerator cancel leaving
\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{5.68}{(1+ 4.68x)^2}
So the linear approximation to the function, at \overline{x} is
y= \frac{5.68}{(1+ 4.68\overline{x})^2}(x- \overline{x})+ \frac{5.68\overline{x}}{1+ 4.68\overline{x}}
 
HallsofIvy said:
First point: to get a linear approximation, you don't really need to know about "Taylor series". You just need to know that tangent line to y= f(x), at \left(\overline{x}, f(\overline{x})\right) is given by y= f'(\overline{x})(x- \overline{x})+ f(\overline{x}).

In this particular case, y= f(x)= \frac{5.68x}{1+ 4.68x}, we can use the "quotient rule" to differentiate:
\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{5.68(1+ 4.68x)- 5.68x(4.68)}{(1+ 4.68x)^2}

The two "5.68(4.68x)" terms in the numerator cancel leaving
\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{5.68}{(1+ 4.68x)^2}
So the linear approximation to the function, at \overline{x} is
y= \frac{5.68}{(1+ 4.68\overline{x})^2}(x- \overline{x})+ \frac{5.68\overline{x}}{1+ 4.68\overline{x}}
Thanks for the reply sir.I have understood how linearisation was done for the first equation 5.1.
But I want to know how eqn 5.6 was obtained from eqn 5.5b.I used the same concept and applied it to 5.5b but I am getting two terms more than the eqn 5.6 : 1/Mn(yn-1*Vn - ynVn). consider yn as yn bar.
 

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