MHB Liouville's extension of Dirichlet's theorem

  • Thread starter Thread starter ksananthu
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Extension Theorem
Click For Summary
Liouville's extension of Dirichlet's theorem relates to calculating triple integrals over specific regions in three-dimensional space. The discussion highlights a query about applying this theorem to evaluate the integral of cos²(x)sin²(x) from 0 to π/2. Participants indicate that the theorem is not relevant for this integral, which can be solved using simpler methods. The conversation shifts towards the applicability of the theorem in integration contexts, ultimately concluding that elementary techniques are more suitable for the given integral. Understanding the limitations of Liouville's extension is essential for proper application in mathematical analysis.
ksananthu
Messages
5
Reaction score
0
What is liouville's extension of dirichlet's theorem ?
and where can I use such a theorem ?
Can I apply Integration like this ?
$$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^2(x)\sin^2(x)\,dx$$
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Re: liouville's extension of dirichlet's theorem

I can help you evaluate that definite integral using elementary techniques if you would like.

Even so, I have moved this topic to Analysis instead. :D
 
Re: liouville's extension of dirichlet's theorem

MarkFL said:
I can help you evaluate that definite integral using elementary techniques if you would like.

Even so, I have moved this topic to Analysis instead. :D

Thank you.
But i want to know how we apply above theorem for integration like this
 
ksananthu said:
What is liouville's extension of dirichlet's theorem ?
and where can I use such a theorem ?
Can I apply Integration like this ?
$$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos^2(x)\sin^2(x)\,dx$$
You can find a statement of those theorems here. They provide a way to calculate triple integrals of certain functions over the region of three-dimensional space given by $x\geqslant0,\: y\geqslant0,\: z\geqslant0,\: x+y+z\leqslant1.$ I cannot see any way in which these results could have anything to do with an integral such as $$\int_0^{\pi/2} \!\!\!\!\!\!\cos^2(x)\sin^2(x)\,dx$$, which as MarkFL points out can be evaluated using far more elementary techniques.
 
We all know the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold uses open sets and homeomorphisms onto the image as open set in ##\mathbb R^n##. It should be possible to reformulate the definition of n-dimensional topological manifold using closed sets on the manifold's topology and on ##\mathbb R^n## ? I'm positive for this. Perhaps the definition of smooth manifold would be problematic, though.

Similar threads

  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
5K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
3K